Originally Posted by Scrapper1 (Post 551698)

There's no such thing as a controlled tap. Either the player establishes control -- holding or dribbling the live ball inbounds -- or he doesn't. Ask yourself this: would you have granted a time-out to the player if he'd asked for it during his "controlled tap". If the answer is no, then NO VIOLATION.

Originally Posted by Snaqwells (Post 551666)

Inbounds. :)

Originally Posted by Scrapper1 (Post 551698)

There's no such thing as a controlled tap. Either the player establishes control -- holding or dribbling the live ball inbounds -- or he doesn't. Ask yourself this: would you have granted a time-out to the player if he'd asked for it during his "controlled tap". If the answer is no, then NO VIOLATION.

Originally Posted by MidMadness (Post 551653)

Throw in at the division line...A1 throws in to A2 in front court, doesn't catch it, just taps it back to A1 in the backcourt, I toot...Backcourt violation...No one in the whole gym knew I blew it, including my partner, My thinking is there was never any team control in the frontcourt off the throw-in, so therefore no backcourt violaton..am I correct ??

Originally Posted by ODJ (Post 551727)

CB 9-9-3 supports violation. Throw-in ends when legally touched. A2 touched ball with FC status. A1 grabs it in BC.

Originally Posted by bob jenkins (Post 551665)

If it was a "controlled tap" (and I know that's not a defined term), then I'd also have a violation. If A2 fumbled tha ball, or it was a bad pass and A2 was just abtting it away from a defensive player, etc., then the play would be legal.

Originally Posted by Scrapper1 (Post 551698)

There's no such thing as a controlled tap. Either the player establishes control -- holding or dribbling the live ball inbounds -- or he doesn't. Ask yourself this: would you have granted a time-out to the player if he'd asked for it during his "controlled tap". If the answer is no, then NO VIOLATION.

Originally Posted by A Pennsylvania Coach (Post 551736)

So if an offensive player is fouled while tapping back a missed shot, you would not award free throw(s)?

Originally Posted by A Pennsylvania Coach (Post 551736)

So if an offensive player is fouled while tapping back a missed shot, you would not award free throw(s)?

Originally Posted by Scrapper1 (Post 551737)

That is not correct. NFHS 4-1-1 specifically says that a player who jumps and taps the ball toward the goal is an airborne shooter.

One of our most basic definitions is that a player is in control of the ball when s/he is holding or dribbling a live ball inbounds. Period. That's the only 2 ways to have player control. Batting or tapping the ball does NOT establish player control. Therefore, there is no such thing as a "controlled tap".

Originally Posted by A Pennsylvania Coach (Post 551740)

A One could say that controlling the ball to tap it is "holding" it, even if just for a moment.

Originally Posted by CoachP (Post 551738)

Isn't a "tap" a "try" as long as you are attempting to make a basket?

Scrapper beat me....

Originally Posted by a4caster (Post 551704)

But you know the funny thing with this play is the inverse, for lack of a better term. If team A has the ball in the FC, basic play, and a pass is deflected by B into the BC, A can legally retrieve the ball. Make sure I'm right on that first.
By using the discussion above, B never had team control, yet we are allowing A to retain possession. Yet a tap on a throw-in doesn't have the same restrictions. Anyone else see the contradiction in this rule?
Just my mid-morning ramblings (lack of sleep and no coffee yet)

Originally Posted by Scrapper1 (Post 551698)

There's no such thing as a controlled tap. Either the player establishes control -- holding or dribbling the live ball inbounds -- or he doesn't. Ask yourself this: would you have granted a time-out to the player if he'd asked for it during his "controlled tap". If the answer is no, then NO VIOLATION.