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Old Wed Feb 23, 2000, 12:47pm
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Hmmm.... In a sense it's a false double foul, but if one foul actually happened before the other, then the other should be considered incidental unless technical, intentional or flagrant. Which gets us back to the point of deciding which occured first and then just administering THAT foul. No doubt the refs will take some heat on that, probably by the coach whose player ultimately was assessed the foul, but I just don't see how or why you would assess BOTH fouls. I admit, the double-foul rule does specify fouls that occur "against each other," so I guess you can't really call it that. What about if the fouls called were on players from the same team? By definition, that couldn't be a "multiple foul" any more than the original situation can be a double foul. Bottom line, I think, is that one of the refs needs to "give up" his call as having occured after the other.
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