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OHBBREF Fri Oct 31, 2008 02:56pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by OHBBREF (Post 547726)
But we do agree that because A1 is out of bounds he DOES NOT have legal guarding position right?

I was being silly
the response was to the play where A1 was OOB and inbounding the ball reached through the plane and contacted by B1. Sorry long thread

Adam Fri Oct 31, 2008 02:56pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by OHBBREF (Post 547755)
yep
A1 driving to the basket B1 is running parralell to A1 haveing never establish LGP, A1 changes direction toward B1 and lowers shoulder to initiate contact and go through B1 to get to the basket.

PC foul and we go the other way.

There are lots of options. B1 standing still, looking at his coach for a signal, and A1 runs by him, brushing him hard enough to knock him down.

Or a rebound, B1 facing the basket, ball goes to A1 behind him. A1 grabs it and charges through B1 before B1 has a chance to turn around.

M&M Guy Fri Oct 31, 2008 03:06pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by OHBBREF (Post 547755)
yep
A1 driving to the basket B1 is running parralell to A1 haveing never establish LGP, A1 changes direction toward B1 and lowers shoulder to initiate contact and go through B1 to get to the basket.

PC foul and we go the other way.

Hmm, actually B1 could have LGP in this particular case.

Perhaps a better example would A1 driving to the basket, B2 is guarding A2 on the post, and B2's back is to A1. As A1 drives past B2, A1 gives a little forearm to B2's back to creat a little more space. (Snaqs has more examples.)

Anyway, we agree the offense can commit a player-control foul against a defender who does not have LGP.

This leads us back to the question of the stationary defender with the foot on the line. My whole point is the case play tells us the defender does not have LGP, due to the foot being on the line. It does not say the defender has "illegal position", and it does not say the defender is responsible for all contact because they are OOB. There have been no specific rules citations to back up any of those comments. So, all other things being equal, my point (and a couple others here), say there can be a situation where A1 can be called for the player-control foul, even though B1's foot is on the line OOB.

Do you follow the logic?

Camron Rust Fri Oct 31, 2008 03:29pm

New example to illustrate the point
 
Here is a new twist to demonstrate the point...

For those that insist the foul is on the player who is OOB just because they are OOB, what is your call if they are both OOB?

Example: A1 loses the ball, an interrupted dribble, just before stepping on the line running into a stationary and OOB B1.

M&M Guy Fri Oct 31, 2008 03:33pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Camron Rust (Post 547771)
Here is a new twist to demonstrate the point...

For those that insist the foul is on the player who is OOB just because they are OOB, what is your call if they are both OOB?

Example: A1 loses the ball, an interrupted dribble, just before stepping on the line running into a stationary and OOB B1.

Double violation, and POI? :D

Sorry, my head hurts...I need a weekend, I think.

OHBBREF Fri Oct 31, 2008 03:45pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by M&M Guy (Post 547765)
So, all other things being equal, my point (and a couple others here), say there can be a situation where A1 can be called for the player-control foul, even though B1's foot is on the line OOB.

Do you follow the logic?

I do not disagree that there could be such a situation,
such as just bowling B1 over becuase he was there, pushing off with the arm, and several others that have probably been mentioned in this thread.

it is possible that you could call a PC foul here,

OHBBREF Fri Oct 31, 2008 03:47pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Camron Rust (Post 547771)
Here is a new twist to demonstrate the point...

For those that insist the foul is on the player who is OOB just because they are OOB, what is your call if they are both OOB?

Example: A1 loses the ball, an interrupted dribble, just before stepping on the line running into a stationary and OOB B1.

No player control during an interuppted dribble,
but yes you could have a foul on A1

Adam Fri Oct 31, 2008 03:48pm

OH, I think by your logic, you can choose between flagrant offensive, intentional offensive, or a block. I honestly don't see how you could ever go with PC if you consider the player to be illegal by virtue of his toe on the line.

Adam Fri Oct 31, 2008 03:49pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by OHBBREF (Post 547775)
No player control during an interuppted dribble,
but yes you could have a foul on A1

Shouldn't you go with a double?

M&M Guy Fri Oct 31, 2008 03:56pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by OHBBREF (Post 547774)
I do not disagree that there could be such a situation,
such as just bowling B1 over becuase he was there, pushing off with the arm, and several others that have probably been mentioned in this thread.

it is possible that you could call a PC foul here,

Whew...I'm think I'm starting to make a little headway.

Now you see my point. There are others that have said you can never have a PC, only because the defender had their foot on the line. Iow, they have an "illegal position" and the only calls could be a block or no-call.

Texref Fri Oct 31, 2008 05:52pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by M&M Guy (Post 547778)
Whew...I'm think I'm starting to make a little headway.

Now you see my point. There are others that have said you can never have a PC, only because the defender had their foot on the line. Iow, they have an "illegal position" and the only calls could be a block or no-call.

If the defender is not "gaurding" the player with the ball. If they are "guarding," remember the definition from earlier, then they must have LGP and, also from earlier, you can't ESTABLISH OR MAINTAIN legal gaurding position OOB.

Adam Fri Oct 31, 2008 05:58pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Texref (Post 547807)
If the defender is not "gaurding" the player with the ball. If they are "guarding," remember the definition from earlier, then they must have LGP

Where's your cite for this?

Texref Fri Oct 31, 2008 06:08pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Snaqwells (Post 547809)
Where's your cite for this?

From the definition of guarding that I posted earlier. Do you not remember, or are you forgetting b/c it makes my point?

Rule 4 Sec. 35 Art 1 Defines Guarding - Guarding shall be the act of legally placing the body in the path of an offensive opponent. The guarding position shall be initially established and then maintained on the playing court.

If you don't consider the defense to be guarding, then LGP doesn't apply. If you consider them to be "guarding" then they must establish and maintain LGP. That is why the rules that tell you that fall under the guarding definition.:rolleyes:

Adam Fri Oct 31, 2008 06:11pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Texref (Post 547812)
From the definition of guarding that I posted earlier. Do you not remember, or are you forgetting b/c it makes my point?

Rule 4 Sec. 35 Art 1 Defines Guarding - Guarding shall be the act of legally placing the body in the path of an offensive opponent. The guarding position shall be initially established and then maintained on the playing court.

If you don't consider the defense to be guarding, then LGP doesn't apply. If you consider them to be "guarding" then they must establish and maintain LGP. That is why the rules that tell you that fall under the guarding definition.:rolleyes:

I'll have to find this tonight in the book, but I thought you were quoting NCAA rules.

Is it your contention that if A1 gets the ball, B1 is between him and the basket with one foot in the air, A1 can run by him and knock him over if he does it before B1 gets his foot down to establish LGP even though B1 is stationary?

Texref Fri Oct 31, 2008 06:13pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Snaqwells (Post 547814)
I'll have to find this tonight in the book, but I thought you were quoting NCAA rules.

That is the NCAA rule. I believe that the HS rule is the same though. See next post!


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