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-   -   case 9.1.1 part B (https://forum.officiating.com/basketball/49279-case-9-1-1-part-b.html)

palmettoref Wed Oct 08, 2008 12:23pm

case 9.1.1 part B
 
Hey guys. I have been reading the case book and came across this particular case and don't really understand what makes this a violation. Last year if this were to happen, it is my understanding that if a player were to lose control of the ball after it bounces off himself, we would blow it dead and readminister the FT. However according to this case, it is a violation. Why? What makes this a violation. The rules reference that the NFHS uses are the 10 sec rule for the ball to touch the rim and the FTer breaking the plane of the FT line. But neither of these actions are stated in the case. Can anybody help me make sense of this case and it's ruling?

PIAA REF Wed Oct 08, 2008 12:39pm

answer
 
I believe that those are the rules stated because if a player loses the ball before shooting one of those could be the result. PLayer loses the ball it would take longer than ten seconds, and if they got to get the ball they cross the plane. I agree that they should just put in the rule that once the foul shooter has control of the ball that it is on them to not lose control of the ball.
Bottom line is it is now a violation if they lose control of the ball.

zeedonk Wed Oct 08, 2008 01:34pm

The case book cites to R 9:1-3 (a) and (e), neither of which, to me, specifically relates to what happened in the case play. On the other hand, it seems easy enough to remember that once the thrower has the ball at his disposal, if he loses it and it rolls away- it's a violation.

The rule seems to leave room for our discretion. To me, if there is any doubt at all that the player mishandles my pass for the free throw, I'm giving it back to him. But to hold it, dribble it 2/3 times and then kick it off his foot, he is out of luck....

palmettoref Wed Oct 08, 2008 01:47pm

in this case, he did not kick it ---- it accidentally bounced off his leg.

just because he loses control is not a violation ----- it is only a violation if he crosses the plane of the FT line or violates the 10 sec rule.

i agree that this case needs more information to make the proper ruling

Raymond Wed Oct 08, 2008 01:53pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by zeedonk (Post 541994)
The case book cites to R 9:1-3 (a) and (e), neither of which, to me, specifically relates to what happened in the case play. On the other hand, it seems easy enough to remember that once the thrower has the ball at his disposal, if he loses it and it rolls away- it's a violation.


Could the player, his coach, or a teammate call time-out while the ball is rolling away?

palmettoref Wed Oct 08, 2008 01:56pm

he could not call a TO because he is not in player control or the ball is not at his disposal

BillyMac Wed Oct 08, 2008 06:46pm

Old News ...
 
From Scrapper1 back on October 1:

9.1.1 has been changed this year. They added a situation where the free thrower loses the ball while doing his habitual dribbling before attempting the try. This year they're telling us this is a violation. If he muffs the pass from the official, reset and administer it again. But once he gets it, if he's just clumsy, it's a violation.

Adam Wed Oct 08, 2008 06:47pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by palmettoref (Post 541995)
in this case, he did not kick it ---- it accidentally bounced off his leg.

Same thing here. Whether his foot was moving at contact is not relevant.

BillyMac Wed Oct 08, 2008 06:51pm

Could Someone Please Just Toss That Ball Back To Me ???
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by palmettoref (Post 542002)
he could not call a TO because he is not in player control or the ball is not at his disposal

Good call. They have team control, but, as you stated, no player control (dribbling, or holding), or ball at disposal, nor is there a dead ball, the ball became live when it was put at the free thrower's disposal.

Adam Wed Oct 08, 2008 06:54pm

Next question, and I'll probably answer it myself in a few seconds; what prevents A2 from picking it up if it rolls to him and passing it back to A1?

Okay, checked the relevant rules, and there's nothing I could find which prevents a teammate (or opponent) from passing the loose ball back to the shooter as long as he shoots within 10 seconds of first receiving the ball.

Raymond Thu Oct 09, 2008 07:30am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Snaqwells (Post 542064)
Next question, and I'll probably answer it myself in a few seconds; what prevents A2 from picking it up if it rolls to him and passing it back to A1?

Okay, checked the relevant rules, and there's nothing I could find which prevents a teammate (or opponent) from passing the loose ball back to the shooter as long as he shoots within 10 seconds of first receiving the ball.

Common Sense??? :p

Just kidding, that spilled over from another thread. :D

grunewar Thu Oct 09, 2008 07:57am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Snaqwells (Post 542064)
what prevents A2 from picking it up if it rolls to him and passing it back to A1?

Wouldn't it be something if A2 commits a lane violation while retrieving the ball and giving it back to A1....and then A1 makes the shot, which is then subsequently wiped away by A2's violation? :eek:

Back In The Saddle Thu Oct 09, 2008 08:14am

It would be something...a late whistle. ;)

zeedonk Thu Oct 09, 2008 08:44am

Quote:

Originally Posted by palmettoref (Post 541995)
in this case, he did not kick it ---- it accidentally bounced off his leg

Absolutely correct- poor choice of words by me...

Mark T. DeNucci, Sr. Thu Oct 09, 2008 07:39pm

My two (2) cents.
 
I read the casebook play (9.1.1b) and the referenced rules (R9-S1-A3a & e). I understand what the Rules Committee is trying to achieve but R9-S1-A3a & e is not the correct rule to apply. R9-S1-A3e DOES NOT apply to CP9.1.1b because A1 did not enter the free throw lane. R9-S1-A3a DOES apply because his free throw attempt did not touch the ring before free throw ended.

MTD, Sr.


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