Drawing a blank

fletch_irwin_m · #1 (**permalink**) Fri May 10, 2002, 02:23pm

Ok, I am in my office with out access to the NFHS rule book and am drawing a blank on a play I had last night. This is an old one, but a good one.

A1 pass the ball along the baseling. B1 gets a hand on it and it goes through the rim underneath and about 1' over the rim and then back through the rim. B1 grabs the ball and heads off the other way.

Should Team A have been awarded a basket? If so who would receive credit for the basket?
If no points should have been awarded then I am an awesome official ready for the NBA Finals sign me up! =)

crew · #2 (**permalink**) Fri May 10, 2002, 02:28pm

nba and nc2a = violation

Brian Watson · #3 (**permalink**) Fri May 10, 2002, 03:16pm

fed = violation as well

ChuckElias · #4 (**permalink**) Fri May 10, 2002, 03:43pm

tony and Brian are both correct, but in case it's not entirely clear, the violation is for causing the ball to enter the basket from underneath. It's exactly like causing the ball to go OOB. Whoever touches it last is the violator and the other team gets the ball. In your case, B deflected the ball, causing to enter the basket from underneath. So A would be awarded the ball at a designated spot on the endline. The ball returning through the basket on its downward flight is irrelevant as the play is already dead.

Chuck

bob jenkins · #5 (**permalink**) Fri May 10, 2002, 09:29pm

Quote:

Originally posted by ChuckElias
tony and Brian are both correct, but in case it's not entirely clear, the violation is for causing the ball to enter the basket from underneath.

Well, the FED violation is for causing the ball to "enter and PASS THROUGH the basket from below."

If the top of the ball gets 1" above the rim, has the ball passed through the basket?

(I recognize the original question said 1', but I'm guessing that was a typo. Even if it wasn't I'd like some discussion on the meaning of "pass through" as it applies to this situation.)

Jurassic Referee · #6 (**permalink**) Sat May 11, 2002, 04:30am

Quote:

Originally posted by bob jenkins

Quote:

Originally posted by ChuckElias
tony and Brian are both correct, but in case it's not entirely clear, the violation is for causing the ball to enter the basket from underneath.

Well, the FED violation is for causing the ball to "enter and PASS THROUGH the basket from below."

If the top of the ball gets 1" above the rim, has the ball passed through the basket? (I recognize the original question said 1', but I'm guessing that was a typo. Even if it wasn't I'd like some discussion on the meaning of "pass through" as it applies to this situation.)

The ball has to completely pass through to have a violation.In other words,you'd better see daylight between the ball and the ring to call the violation.NCAA uses the same terminology as FED-"enter and pass through".

ChuckElias · #7 (**permalink**) Sat May 11, 2002, 11:50am

[QUOTE]Originally posted by bob jenkins

Quote:

Well, the FED violation is for causing the ball to "enter and PASS THROUGH the basket from below."

Yes, yes, ok. Very honestly, that's what I meant. But it's a good point to make. The ball has to go all the way through.

Interestingly, in the NBA, if a player dunks the ball and then the ball bounces off his head and back up through the basket, the call is basket interference. I just read that in the casebook 2 days ago.

Chuck