Rule 4 - Section 35 Player Location
 

After a made basket by team B. A1 inbounds the ball in the backcourt to A2 who bats the ball back to A1. A1 touches the ball before he has his second foot touching the floor inbounds. Is this a violation?

I reviewed Rule Section 2 (Throw-In Provisions) also.

If one of his feet is still touching OOB, it is a violation. If one of his feet is inbounds and the other is not touching OOB, he is considered inbounds and there is no violation.

Anytime a player was OOB and they then step inbounds and have nothing touching OOB any longer, they are considered inbounds even if only one foot is inbounds. They do not have to have both feet touching inbounds to be considered inbounds.

BTW - you can use the same logic when a player is moving from back court to front court.

Review the Case Book also:
4.35.2 SITUATION: Thrower A1 inbounds the ball to A2. A2 immediately throws the ball back to A1. When A1 touches the pass, he/she has: (a) both feet touching inbounds; (b) one foot touching inbounds and one out of bounds; or (c) one foot touching inbounds and the other not touching the floor. RULING: The ball remains live in (a) and (c), but A1 has caused the ball to be out of bounds in (b). (4-4-4)

Why would it be a violation? I'm only asking because you say you've reviewed the applicable rule but still wonder. Are you just trying to clarify?

I looked at the rule but I could not find an answer. I thought it might be a violation if a player touched the ball before having both feet down inbounds. I was looking for an answer.

Thanks for the replies.