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-   -   You make the call II (https://forum.officiating.com/basketball/419-you-make-call-ii.html)

BruceNan Tue Feb 08, 2000 10:53pm

Another situation happened during this same game yesterday.

Team B makes a basket. Team A is inbounding the ball. The ball goes out of bounds without being touched by either Team A or B.

Is the ball put in play were the ball went out of bounds or is it a spot throw in from the original spot where Team A threw it in?

rhino00047 Tue Feb 08, 2000 11:12pm

where it went out of bounds is where the throw should take place

buffett Wed Feb 09, 2000 12:21am

The spot for the new throw-in is at the spot where the ball was caused to go out of bounds. Since Team A caused the ball to OOB, the original spot is the site of the new throw-in. Rule 7-1-2 and 7-2-2.

Jeremy Hohn Wed Feb 09, 2000 08:02am

Nobody touched the ball to give it inbound status to establish a new throw in spot for an oob. Therefore we must go back to the last established oob spot and inbound from there.

Todd VandenAkker Wed Feb 09, 2000 10:06am

I agree with Jeremy. Because no one touched the ball, it comes back to the original throw-in spot. This has been a "basic" in basketball for many years, and occurs frequently.

Art N Wed Feb 09, 2000 10:28am

Rhino, check the replies here. It seems by your answer you want the ball to be inbounded from the spot it went out. NO inbound status, ergo bring it back to the throw in spot. You'll see this on the "long bomb" type of passes that go OOB alot. Keep smilin'.

jackgil Wed Feb 09, 2000 02:01pm

Question: Team A is inbounding ball and it hits bottom of backboard and richochets back to them out of bounds. Violation? Or ball never went inbound and they get ball again for throw-in?

Tom Cook Wed Feb 09, 2000 02:07pm

Yes, violation. The bottom of the backboard is inbounds, so A has thrown the ball to an inbounds status. When A1 touches the ball out of bounds he causes the ball to be out of bounds, so it's B's ball at the same spot.

jackgil Wed Feb 09, 2000 02:17pm

Tom, thanks. Thats the way I called it. Anybody disagree?

KidKJ Wed Feb 09, 2000 02:47pm

<BLOCKQUOTE><font size="1" face="Verdana, Arial, Geneva">quote:</font><HR>Originally posted by BruceNan on 02-08-2000 09:53 PM
Another situation happened during this same game yesterday.

Team B makes a basket. Team A is inbounding the ball. The ball goes out of bounds without being touched by either Team A or B.

Is the ball put in play were the ball went out of bounds or is it a spot throw in from the original spot where Team A threw it in?<HR></BLOCKQUOTE>

If the ball was not touched it should have been inbounded at the spot of the original throw in.

Todd VandenAkker Wed Feb 09, 2000 04:06pm

<BLOCKQUOTE><font size="1" face="Verdana, Arial, Geneva">quote:</font><HR>Originally posted by Tom Cook on 02-09-2000 01:07 PM
Yes, violation. The bottom of the backboard is inbounds, so A has thrown the ball to an inbounds status. When A1 touches the ball out of bounds he causes the ball to be out of bounds, so it's B's ball at the same spot.<HR></BLOCKQUOTE>

Right on! The backboard has the same status as the floor inbounds. No violation from touching the board, but a violation when the inbounder touched it again. Throw in from wherever he touched it.

However, here's a question. If the ball REALLY touched the bottom of the board (as opposed to the back of the board), could it return BACKWARDS to the thrower-in and thus back out-of-bounds? Figuring angles, and assuming the bottom of the board is flat, one would expect the ball to deflect downward and out at least slightly toward the court. If it comes back toward the endline, that would suggest, logically, that the ball struck part of the BACK of the board, which is a violation in itself. Same result in either case (violation), but if another player had touched or grabbed the ball before it went OOB and started dribbling or took a shot, that would be a different situation (for example, an opponent scores a quick basket right there).

Michael Wed Feb 09, 2000 05:59pm

I agree with Rhino00047. I don't have my rule books with me but it seems to me that the mechanic of bringing the ball back to the spot of the throw-in would only apply after a throw-in when the clock is NOT running. The question says that Team B was inbounding the ball after Team A made a shot, therefore the clock is running. Besides, in that instance with player B1 allowed to run the end line, where do you put the ball in play if you have to bring it back to the spot of the throw-in? What does rule 7-1,7-2 say?

ScottK Wed Feb 09, 2000 07:12pm

<BLOCKQUOTE><font size="1" face="Verdana, Arial, Geneva">quote:</font><HR>Originally posted by BruceNan on 02-08-2000 09:53 PM
Another situation happened during this same game yesterday.

Team B makes a basket. Team A is inbounding the ball. The ball goes out of bounds without being touched by either Team A or B.

Is the ball put in play were the ball went out of bounds or is it a spot throw in from the original spot where Team A threw it in?<HR></BLOCKQUOTE>

B should inbound the ball as a spot throw in from the original point.
Fed rule 9-2-2: Penalty

Bart Tyson Thu Feb 10, 2000 01:06am

Todd you are correct about the ball hitting the bact of the board when the ball ricochets back. This is a violation.

jackgil Thu Feb 10, 2000 10:32am

Todd -

You raise an interesting point about hitting the BACK of the backboard. The coach thought that on the inbounds play the ball hit the BACK of the backboard before bounding back to the inbounder so her point was that it never had inbounds status - redo the throw-in. It is a violation to hit the back of the backboard IF the ball is in play. But what if it hits the BACK when inbounding the ball?


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