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We are not talking about gaining control of a ball and then falling. This is a player that gains control with one knee down and one foot. That foot should be able to be the pivot foot. So if the pivot foot isn't moved (the rule says if the pivot foot moves), why can't he stand? I'm good with the NFHS rule. It's NCAA i'm having a hard time with.
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"referee the defense" |
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You opinion doesn't matter about what he should be able to do. The NCAA committee says that he can't stand. If he does, it's a travelling violation, period. That's it. |
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I swear, Gus, you'd argue with a possum. It'd be easier than arguing with you, Woodrow. Lonesome Dove |
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b. When one foot is on the playing court:
1. That foot shall be the pivot foot when the other foot touches in a step; A.R. 110. Is it traveling when a player (a) falls to the playing court while holding the ball; or (b) gains control of the ball while on the playing court and then, because of momentum, rolls or slides, after which the player passes or starts a dribble before getting to his or her feet? RULING: In (a), yes, because it is virtually impossible not to move the pivot foot when falling to the playing floor. this indicates that a player can maintain a pivot while being on the ground. but nothing has explicitly said that this is a travel.
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The part about rising to one's feet makes not mention of a pivot foot. When a player rises to his feet while holding the ball, it is traveling. Period.
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I swear, Gus, you'd argue with a possum. It'd be easier than arguing with you, Woodrow. Lonesome Dove |
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okay, so then you are saying that if you have already established a pivot foot, you may go down and come up from one knee at will so long as you don't move your pivot. correct?
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"referee the defense" Last edited by footlocker; Mon Dec 31, 2007 at 01:18am. |
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The play in the OP is about a player gaining control of the ball while one knee is already on the ground and one foot ...
How about this situation: A1 catches a pass ... left foot has been established as the pivot ... for whatever reason, A1 decides to drop to one knee (his right) while left foot remains stationary ... A1 then decides to stand upright again - removing his right knee off the ground ... legal or not? |
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What you have to learn is that you must follow the defined concepts when officiating. These definitions form the heart of play calling. You are mistaken that the player "started with a pivot foot." In fact, he does not have a pivot in this situation because he is by definition deemed to be on the floor since he gained control of the ball while touching the floor with something other than a hand or foot. Blindzebra just wrote this as well. If you look in the NCAA rulebook for how a pivot is established, you will see that it only pertains to a player who is standing upright on his feet. When a player gains control while on the floor he is governed by a specific ruling. I posted that ruling for you already in this thread. The most important point to take from that is what JAR wrote: Quote:
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"referee the defense" |
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A player with a knee on the floor is ON THE FLOOR! The rule explicitly states what a player may and may not do while on the floor. If you can't understand that simple thing, your striped shirt may be better used working at your user name than on the court. ![]() |
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Lah me........ ![]() |
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Thread | Thread Starter | Forum | Replies | Last Post |
traveling ? | roadking | Basketball | 3 | Wed Dec 05, 2007 09:32am |
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Traveling, yes or no? | Joefan99 | Basketball | 17 | Fri Feb 11, 2005 11:15am |
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traveling or not | stewcall | Basketball | 5 | Sat Feb 05, 2005 08:27pm |