traveling?

[footlocker]

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

When a player rises to his or her feet while holding the ball, it is traveling. When a player falls to one knee while
holding the ball, it is traveling if the pivot foot moves.
(Rule 4-68.6 and 4-68.1)

We are not talking about gaining control of a ball and then falling. This is a player that gains control with one knee down and one foot. That foot should be able to be the pivot foot. So if the pivot foot isn't moved (the rule says if the pivot foot moves), why can't he stand?

I'm good with the NFHS rule. It's NCAA i'm having a hard time with.

[Nevadaref]

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref
When a player rises to his or her feet while holding the ball, it is traveling. When a player falls to one knee while
holding the ball, it is traveling if the pivot foot moves.
(Rule 4-68.6 and 4-68.1)

Originally Posted by footlocker

We are not talking about gaining control of a ball and then falling. This is a player that gains control with one knee down and one foot. That foot should be able to be the pivot foot. So if the pivot foot isn't moved (the rule says if the pivot foot moves), why can't he stand?

I'm good with the NFHS rule. It's NCAA i'm having a hard time with.

I know what you are inquiring about. I highlighted the relevant sentence. You quoted an additional one that has nothing to do with the situation. Just take the one sentence above by itself and you have your answer. The NFHS and the NCAA have the same take on this play. It's illegal.

You opinion doesn't matter about what he should be able to do. The NCAA committee says that he can't stand. If he does, it's a travelling violation, period. That's it.

[footlocker]

I'm not trying to inject opinion. If I am, sorry.

My question is: why would I consider A1 to be rising to his feet, when he started with a pivot foot?

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by footlocker

I'm not trying to inject opinion. If I am, sorry.

My question is: why would I consider A1 to be rising to his feet, when he started with a pivot foot?

He started with one knee on the ground and one foot. When he rose to his feet, it was traveling.

[blindzebra]

Originally Posted by footlocker

I'm not trying to inject opinion. If I am, sorry.

My question is: why would I consider A1 to be rising to his feet, when he started with a pivot foot?

If they gain possession on the floor they have no pivot foot.

[footlocker]

b. When one foot is on the playing court:
1. That foot shall be the pivot foot when the other foot touches in a
step;

A.R. 110. Is it traveling when a player (a) falls to the playing court while holding the ball; or (b) gains control of the ball while on the playing court and then, because of momentum, rolls or slides, after which the player passes or starts a dribble before getting to his or her feet? RULING: In (a), yes, because it is virtually impossible not to move the pivot foot when falling to the playing floor.

this indicates that a player can maintain a pivot while being on the ground. but nothing has explicitly said that this is a travel.

[just another ref]

The part about rising to one's feet makes not mention of a pivot foot. When a player rises to his feet while holding the ball, it is traveling. Period.

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by footlocker

b. When one foot is on the playing court:
1. That foot shall be the pivot foot when the other foot touches in a
step;

A.R. 110. Is it traveling when a player (a) falls to the playing court while holding the ball; or (b) gains control of the ball while on the playing court and then, because of momentum, rolls or slides, after which the player passes or starts a dribble before getting to his or her feet? RULING: In (a), yes, because it is virtually impossible not to move the pivot foot when falling to the playing floor.

this indicates that a player can maintain a pivot while being on the ground. but nothing has explicitly said that this is a travel.

That is if he already had established one. You are missing that point.

[footlocker]

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

That is if he already had established one. You are missing that point.

okay, so then you are saying that if you have already established a pivot foot, you may go down and come up from one knee at will so long as you don't move your pivot. correct?

[Johnny Ringo]

The play in the OP is about a player gaining control of the ball while one knee is already on the ground and one foot ...

How about this situation:

A1 catches a pass ... left foot has been established as the pivot ... for whatever reason, A1 decides to drop to one knee (his right) while left foot remains stationary ... A1 then decides to stand upright again - removing his right knee off the ground ... legal or not?

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by footlocker

I'm not trying to inject opinion. If I am, sorry.

My question is: why would I consider A1 to be rising to his feet, when he started with a pivot foot?

When you said that the player should be able to do such and such, I took that as your opinion.

What you have to learn is that you must follow the defined concepts when officiating. These definitions form the heart of play calling.

You are mistaken that the player "started with a pivot foot." In fact, he does not have a pivot in this situation because he is by definition deemed to be on the floor since he gained control of the ball while touching the floor with something other than a hand or foot. Blindzebra just wrote this as well.

If you look in the NCAA rulebook for how a pivot is established, you will see that it only pertains to a player who is standing upright on his feet. When a player gains control while on the floor he is governed by a specific ruling. I posted that ruling for you already in this thread. The most important point to take from that is what JAR wrote:

Originally Posted by just another ref

He started with one knee on the ground and one foot. When he rose to his feet, it was traveling.

[footlocker]

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

When you said that the player should be able to do such and such, I took that as your opinion.

Not debating this. Move on.

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

What you have to learn is that you must follow the defined concepts when officiating. These definitions form the heart of play calling.

Thank you. You need to not worry about what you think I have to learn. Your first post stated it best. This is not explicitly covered in the rules.

[blindzebra]

Originally Posted by footlocker

Not debating this. Move on.



Thank you. You need to not worry about what you think I have to learn. Your first post stated it best. This is not explicitly covered in the rules.

It is explicitly covered.

A player with a knee on the floor is ON THE FLOOR!

The rule explicitly states what a player may and may not do while on the floor.

If you can't understand that simple thing, your striped shirt may be better used working at your user name than on the court.

[Jurassic Referee]

Originally Posted by footlocker

This is not explicitly covered in the rules.

How many freaking times does everybody have to post the very explicit freaking NCAA and NFHS rules that cover the freaking play? It's FREAKING traveling!!!!

Lah me........