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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Sun Dec 30, 2007, 10:37pm
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yes


NFHS:

4-44-5: A player holding the ball after gaining control while on the floor and touching with other than hand or foot, may not attempt to get up or stand.
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Last edited by just another ref; Sun Dec 30, 2007 at 10:39pm.
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  #2 (permalink)  
Old Sun Dec 30, 2007, 10:43pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by just another ref
yes


NFHS:

4-44-5: A player holding the ball after gaining control while on the floor and touching with other than hand or foot, may not attempt to get up or stand.

ok is he considered to be on the floor? why can't i say the foot that is on the ground is the pivot foot? what about college?
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Old Sun Dec 30, 2007, 10:44pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by footlocker
ok is he considered to be on the floor? why can't i say the foot that is on the ground is the pivot foot? what about college?
Quote:
Originally Posted by rule
and touching with other than hand or foot, may not attempt to get up or stand.
Yes.
Pivot foot doesn't matter if any other part of the body besides the hands or feet is touching the floor.
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Old Sun Dec 30, 2007, 11:22pm
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NCAA has the same understanding.

While the NCAA book does not have a rule which explicitly says so, the interpretation is the same as evidenced by this approved ruling from the casebook.

Traveling
A.R. 103.
Is it traveling when a player:

37
(1) Falls to the playing court while holding the ball without maintaining
a pivot foot; or
(2) Falls to the playing court on both knees while holding the ball
without maintaining a pivot foot; or
(3) Gains control of the ball while on the playing court and then,
because of momentum, rolls or slides, after which the player passes or
starts a dribble before getting to his or her feet?
RULING: (1) and (2) Yes, because it is virtually impossible not to move the
pivot foot when falling to the playing floor.
(3) No. The player may pass, shoot, start a dribble or call a timeout. Once
the player has the ball and is no longer sliding, he or she may not roll over.
When flat on his or her back, the player may sit up without violating.
When the player puts the ball on the floor, then rises and is the first to
touch the ball, it also is traveling. When a player rises to his or her feet
while holding the ball, it is traveling. When a player falls to one knee while
holding the ball, it is traveling if the pivot foot moves.
(Rule 4-68.6 and 4-68.1)
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  #5 (permalink)  
Old Sun Dec 30, 2007, 11:48pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Nevadaref
When a player rises to his or her feet while holding the ball, it is traveling. When a player falls to one knee while
holding the ball, it is traveling if the pivot foot moves.
(Rule 4-68.6 and 4-68.1)

We are not talking about gaining control of a ball and then falling. This is a player that gains control with one knee down and one foot. That foot should be able to be the pivot foot. So if the pivot foot isn't moved (the rule says if the pivot foot moves), why can't he stand?

I'm good with the NFHS rule. It's NCAA i'm having a hard time with.
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Old Sun Dec 30, 2007, 11:57pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Nevadaref
When a player rises to his or her feet while holding the ball, it is traveling. When a player falls to one knee while
holding the ball, it is traveling if the pivot foot moves.

(Rule 4-68.6 and 4-68.1)



Quote:
Originally Posted by footlocker
We are not talking about gaining control of a ball and then falling. This is a player that gains control with one knee down and one foot. That foot should be able to be the pivot foot. So if the pivot foot isn't moved (the rule says if the pivot foot moves), why can't he stand?

I'm good with the NFHS rule. It's NCAA i'm having a hard time with.
I know what you are inquiring about. I highlighted the relevant sentence. You quoted an additional one that has nothing to do with the situation. Just take the one sentence above by itself and you have your answer. The NFHS and the NCAA have the same take on this play. It's illegal.

You opinion doesn't matter about what he should be able to do. The NCAA committee says that he can't stand. If he does, it's a travelling violation, period. That's it.
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Old Mon Dec 31, 2007, 12:05am
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I'm not trying to inject opinion. If I am, sorry.

My question is: why would I consider A1 to be rising to his feet, when he started with a pivot foot?
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