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pauli Mon Apr 24, 2006 01:15pm

Violation?
 
Can't seem to remember this one: A1 in the backcourt with ball in hand and has not dribbled yet. Is he/she allowed to throw the ball against the opponents backboard and be the first to touch it? Rule book indicates that it would constitute a dribble. I was thinking it was a violation.

Jurassic Referee Mon Apr 24, 2006 01:37pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by pauli
Can't seem to remember this one: A1 in the backcourt with ball in hand and has not dribbled yet. Is he/she allowed to throw the ball against the opponents backboard and be the first to touch it? Rule book indicates that it would constitute a dribble. I was thinking it was a violation.

It's only a violation if A1 had dribbled before.

budjones05 Mon Apr 24, 2006 02:43pm

Not to contradict your answer, but what if he throws the ball and his own teammate get the "rebound"?

Jurassic Referee Mon Apr 24, 2006 02:53pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by budjones05
Not to contradict your answer, but what if he throws the ball and his own teammate get the "rebound"?

Nothing the matter with that, it's legal- but it's also "apples and oranges" to what we've been discussing.

The original post said that A1 was the <b>first</b> to touch it. The question was answered on that premise, naturally.

Raymond Mon Apr 24, 2006 02:54pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by budjones05
Not to contradict your answer, but what if he throws the ball and his own teammate get the "rebound"?

Bud,

What violation are you looking for in this situation? Basically what you are asking is "Is it legal to throw the ball against the opponent's backboard?" The answer to that is "yes". Violation comes into play if the player has already used his dribble and he retrieves the thrown ball. Or if he hasn't used his dribble, throws against the opponent's backboard, retrieves his own thrown ball then starts a dribble.

Ask yourself this: Would it be a violation if A1 was is getting pressed, throws the ball across court and it skims the opponents backboard or rim and then is caught by A2?

SamIAm Mon Apr 24, 2006 02:55pm

No Violation Again
 
Not to contradict your answer, but what if he throws the ball and his own teammate get the "rebound"?

Still no violation, regardless of which of the two backboards/goals is used, nor does the day of week, nor time of year, nor player number make a difference, no violation, yet.:D

Adam Mon Apr 24, 2006 07:08pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by SamIAm
Not to contradict your answer, but what if he throws the ball and his own teammate get the "rebound"?

Still no violation, regardless of which of the two backboards/goals is used, nor does the day of week, nor time of year, nor player number make a difference, no violation, yet.:D

Ah, but if they're playing on natural grass, it's a violation.

Nu1 Tue Apr 25, 2006 09:08am

Pauli...I know this adds a little to your question, but if A1 has not used their dribble they can throw the ball off of the opponents backboard and be the first to touch it. Depending on what they do after they touch it...a violation may follow.

For example; A1 has not used their dribble and throws the ball of the opponents backboard and then (a) catches the ball in both hands, (b) catches the ball in both hands and dribbles, or (c) does not catch the ball, but continues a dribble when the ball hits the floor.

I don't know if I've given a clear scenario, but (a) and (c) would not be violations. In (a) a dribble started and ended. In (c) a dribble started and continued. In (b) a violation has occured as a dribble started...ended...and a second dribble started.

budjones05 Thu Apr 27, 2006 11:20pm

Thanks guys


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