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Hi All. I would appreciate your opinions on this Scenario:
A1 in froncourt's pass deflects off A2's leg and heads towards backcourt. Before reaching backcourt B1 touches ball but does not gain control. Ball then goes into backcourt and A1 secures control. Is this a backcourt violation? |
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I think this is probably one of the biggest thread starters on this forum backcourt violation or not. One of the most misunderstood parts of the game in my opinion for new or newer refs and coaches.
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"If you ever stop to say 'What's going to happen to me if I make this call', you might as well take your whistle and shove it because that's all the respect you're giving it."-Earl Strom |
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The ball must have front court location. (Ball was in front court) The ball must be last touched in the front court by the team in control. (The ball was touched by an opponent) The ball must be first touched in the back court by the team in control. (A1 was first to touch in the back court) All four requirements were not met. Thus, no violation should be called. mick Had to be edited, cuz Lotto made me do it. [Edited by mick on Jan 27th, 2006 at 10:36 PM] |
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A similar scenario demonstrates that the ball never has to be touched in the backcourt for there to be a backcourt violation. |
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You are certainly correct. For all cases it should prolly read: There must be team control (Team A had it) The ball must have front court location. (Ball was in front court) The ball, in the front court, must be last touched by the team in control. (The ball was touched by an opponent) The ball, in the back court, must be first touched by the team in control. (A1 was first to touch in the back court) All four requirements were not met. Thus, no violation should be called. Does that work? mick |
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The requirements are: TC Ball in FC Team A last to touch before ball goes to BC Team A first to touch after ball goes to BC |
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I quit. I surrender. mick |
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