Over and back

fonzzy07 · #1 (**permalink**) Fri Jan 20, 2006, 11:07pm

Hey guys just a quick one. A1 has the ball in the front court then B1 tips it into the backcourt. A1 gets the ball in the backcourt. Over and back???? also what if A2 gets the ball Over and Back????

yankeesfan · #2 (**permalink**) Fri Jan 20, 2006, 11:16pm

no violation in either situation.

bob jenkins · #3 (**permalink**) Fri Jan 20, 2006, 11:32pm

Nor is it a violation if A3, A4 or A5 recovers the ball. If A6 gets the ball though, there's going to be a problem.

IREFU2 · #4 (**permalink**) Sat Jan 21, 2006, 09:57am

Quote:

Originally posted by bob jenkins
Nor is it a violation if A3, A4 or A5 recovers the ball. If A6 gets the ball though, there's going to be a problem.

LOL!!!!

BktBallRef · #5 (**permalink**) Sat Jan 21, 2006, 10:52am

Quote:

Originally posted by fonzzy07
Hey guys just a quick one. A1 has the ball in the front court then B1 tips it into the backcourt. A1 gets the ball in the backcourt. Over and back???? also what if A2 gets the ball Over and Back????

It's only a violation if an A player is the last to touch the ball before it goes into the BC and the first to touch it after it's been in the BC.

refnrev · #6 (**permalink**) Sat Jan 21, 2006, 11:23am

Would you give the tipped sign to let everyone know you saw there was contact or not? I almost always do unless it is blatantly obvious.

BktBallRef · #7 (**permalink**) Sat Jan 21, 2006, 12:14pm

Quote:

Originally posted by refnrev
Would you give the tipped sign to let everyone know you saw there was contact or not? I almost always do unless it is blatantly obvious.

If I'm looking at the NFHS Signal Chart, which one is the "tipped sign?"

rainmaker · #8 (**permalink**) Sat Jan 21, 2006, 12:44pm

Quote:

Originally posted by BktBallRef

Quote:

Originally posted by refnrev
Would you give the tipped sign to let everyone know you saw there was contact or not? I almost always do unless it is blatantly obvious.

If I'm looking at the NFHS Signal Chart, which one is the "tipped sign?"

I don't give the tipped sign, and I hope my partner won't....

...unless as T I look at P needing information, or vice versa. I know it's not "authorized" but it's useful and prevents a lot of difficulty. So sue me.

Ref Daddy · #9 (**permalink**) Sat Jan 21, 2006, 04:51pm

Quote:

Originally posted by fonzzy07
Hey guys just a quick one. A1 has the ball in the front court then B1 tips it into the backcourt. A1 gets the ball in the backcourt. Over and back???? also what if A2 gets the ball Over and Back????

Easy way to remeber this - its not who gets it - its who last TOUCHED it in front court.

fonzzy07 · #10 (**permalink**) Sat Jan 21, 2006, 04:58pm

Quote:

Originally posted by Ref Daddy

Quote:

Originally posted by fonzzy07
Hey guys just a quick one. A1 has the ball in the front court then B1 tips it into the backcourt. A1 gets the ball in the backcourt. Over and back???? also what if A2 gets the ball Over and Back????

Easy way to remeber this - its not who gets it - its who last TOUCHED it in front court.

Thanks that makes it easier, when I have to make the call or no call for that matter. just less to have to think of. I like that alot it should help. Thanks again

fonzzy07 · #11 (**permalink**) Sat Jan 21, 2006, 05:01pm

So by following this new rule if A1 has the ball in the front court, B1 tips it back off A1's leg and it goes back court as soon as any A memeber touches it, it is over and back?

Jurassic Referee · #12 (**permalink**) Sat Jan 21, 2006, 05:05pm

Quote:

Originally posted by fonzzy07
So by following this new rule if A1 has the ball in the front court, B1 tips it back off A1's leg and it goes back court as soon as any A memeber touches it, it is over and back?

New rule? New about 70 years ago.....

Yes, it's a backcourt violation. An A player was the last to touch it in the frontcourt...and an A player was the first to touch it in the backcourt.

JugglingReferee · #13 (**permalink**) Sat Jan 21, 2006, 06:22pm

Quote:

Originally posted by Jurassic Referee

Quote:

Originally posted by fonzzy07
So by following this new rule if A1 has the ball in the front court, B1 tips it back off A1's leg and it goes back court as soon as any A memeber touches it, it is over and back?

New rule? New about 70 years ago.....

Yes, it's a backcourt violation. An A player was the last to touch it in the frontcourt...and an A player was the first to touch it in the backcourt.

70 years ago, JR was consulted about the philosophies to the game this rule would have.

I believe the controversial part was A's intent. One version was if A intended the ball to go back to the BC, and was the first to touch it, it is a violation. If there was no intent, no violation. The other flavour was taking out the intent, making it the rule we know now.