Is this against the rules??

[JRutledge]

Originally posted by Nevadaref
No, what the NFHS said was to penalize with a T when the action is done purposely with the intent to benefit from the violation call.

That is still a judgment call or decision on your part as an official. You have to decide whether this was done on purpose as you would have to decide if Team B violated on purpose on a FT in order to get an advantage. Not all of our decisions are very clear to everyone. An official could have overheard a coach suggesting this. That is why I have said that I probably would call nothing at all until that player entered the court with Team A with the ball.

Originally posted by JRutledge
I don't share that opinion. This player did nothing in an attempt to gain an advantage. He never even returned to the court!

This is why I used the words "in my opinion" in this response. I understand completely that other people will possibly disagree.

Peace