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Old Mon Jan 02, 2006, 02:39pm
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On a BB forum, we are having a discussion about NCAA rules. I quoted the following from the Rules Committee "Rules Philosophy and Principles" article talking about the Tower Philosophy.

"As an illustration, Rule 10 - Section 10: 'A player shall not contact an opponent with his hand unless such contact is only with the opponent's hand while it is on the ball and is incidental to an attempt to play the ball...' If an official did not take a realistic approach to this particular rule and officiated the rule literally, the basketball game would be one of continual fouls and whistle blowing. A good official realizes that contact, not only in the instance cited previously, but also in other aspects of the game must be looked at in terms of the effect it creates on the opponent. If there is no apparent disadvantage to an opponent then, realistically speaking, no rule violation has occurred. The official must use discretion in applying this rule and all rules."

One response was that if this were true, we would see no traditional 3 point plays as if the shot is made, there was no disadvantage and thus no foul.

That is obviously not what is meant by disadvantage - is it? Could you give me a couple of examples to share on the forum?

In trying to work it out for myself, I thought I could come up with a couple of examples but it made my head whirl - much like it does when I try to follow arguments being made by lawyers! It sure is hard trying to become a knowledgeable fan! Any help would be greatly appreciated.
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Old Mon Jan 02, 2006, 03:02pm
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Just because a player hits the shot, it doesn't mean that there wasn't a disadvantage. IOW, the end does not justify the means.

I wouldn't spend a lot of time arguing the point. No matter your arguement, they're not going to buy it.
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Old Mon Jan 02, 2006, 03:08pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by Gator

"As an illustration, Rule 10 - Section 10: 'A player shall not contact an opponent with his hand unless such contact is only with the opponent's hand while it is on the ball and is incidental to an attempt to play the ball...'
One response was that if this were true, we would see no traditional 3 point plays as if the shot is made, there was no disadvantage and thus no foul.

That is obviously not what is meant by disadvantage - is it? Could you give me a couple of examples to share on the forum?

Incidental contact is never a foul.

Any contact that affects the shooter is a foul. If you push the shooter, smack his arm, pop him upside the head, etc., etc., etc.,... those are all fouls.

That exception you cited above only applies to one very specific type of contact-- a defender contacting an opponent's hand with his hand while his opponents's hand is on the ball. Any contact on any part of the shooter's body other than the hand on the ball could be a foul, if that contact was not incidental.

Methinks that you're thinking way too much on this one. You're trying to take an exception that applies to one very specific type of contact on a shooter and apply it to all types of contact on a shooter.
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