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Old Sat Dec 31, 2005, 11:24am
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Join Date: Aug 2001
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Quote:
Originally posted by gostars
Would the ruling be any different if A1 had released the ball (but was still airborne) before she was fouled by B1?
Nope, the fouls occurred during the same act--i.e. "the act of shooting" as defined in R4-41-1. Note that the complete "act of shooting" also includes the start of the try when the shooter first gathers the ball right up to the time the airborne shooter lands.

If you've got two opponents committing fouls against each other during this same act, then that meets the book definition of a "double foul" under R4-19-8 imo. If they occur during the same act, that's close enough to "approximately the same time".

If B1 hadda fouled A1, and then airborne A1 charged B2, then you would have a different situation. That one is a false double foul because one of the attributes of a double foul is missing- the proviso that the fouls must be committed by opponents against each other. That's why a differnt play- 4.19.9SitA- is in the case book.

I agree with blindzebra, iow.

[Edited by Jurassic Referee on Dec 31st, 2005 at 11:26 AM]
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