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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Sun Nov 20, 2005, 02:39am
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The question: "A1's throw-in is touched by B1, who has one foot touching the
boundary line. Official rules this a throw-in violation and awards team B
the ball at the spot of the throw-in. Is the official correct?"

I believe these are the relevant citations.

4-42-5 says: "The throw-in ends when the passed ball touches, or is touched
by, an inbounds player other than the thrower."

9-2-2 says: " . . . The ball shall be passed by the thrower directly into
the court from out-of-bound so it touches or is touched by another player
(in bounds or out of bounds) on the court before going out of bounds
untouched."

9-2-10 says: "No player shall be out of bounds when he/she touches or is
touched by the ball after it has been released on a throw-in pass."

Under 4-42-5 the throw-in has not ended.

Under 9-2-2 A1 action is not a violation.

Under 9-2-10 B1 has violated.

Thus, in the question in question, ball to A1 at the spot of B1's violation.
AND, if the throw-in is an alternating possession throw-in, A keeps the
arrow.
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Old Sun Nov 20, 2005, 06:54pm
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Uh, I was working hard on answering the question . . .

I didn't add that I wanted critique, please. Am I right????
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Old Sun Nov 20, 2005, 07:08pm
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You're correct that A1 did not violate. However, if it were an AP throw-in, the arrow would change since A1 did complete the AP throw-in.
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Old Sun Nov 20, 2005, 07:45pm
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Uh . . .

Quote:
Originally posted by ChuckElias
You're correct that A1 did not violate. However, if it were an AP throw-in, the arrow would change since A1 did complete the AP throw-in.
4-42-5 says: "The throw-in ends when the passed ball touches, or is touched by, an inbounds player other than the thrower."

In the situation in question, the ball is touched by an out-of-bounds player, no?
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Old Sun Nov 20, 2005, 07:55pm
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Hmmm, my answer was off the top of my head, but you certainly have me thinking. Let me look. Sure sounds like you're right, tho.
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  #6 (permalink)  
Old Sun Nov 20, 2005, 08:14pm
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Better check out R6-4-4 too, Chuck.
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Old Sun Nov 20, 2005, 11:07pm
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Re: Uh . . .

Quote:
Originally posted by assignmentmaker
Quote:
Originally posted by ChuckElias
You're correct that A1 did not violate. However, if it were an AP throw-in, the arrow would change since A1 did complete the AP throw-in.
4-42-5 says: "The throw-in ends when the passed ball touches, or is touched by, an inbounds player other than the thrower."

In the situation in question, the ball is touched by an out-of-bounds player, no?
You need to check R7-6-1.
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Old Mon Nov 21, 2005, 02:38am
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Re: Re: Uh . . .

Quote:
Originally posted by WinterWillie
Quote:
Originally posted by assignmentmaker
Quote:
Originally posted by ChuckElias
You're correct that A1 did not violate. However, if it were an AP throw-in, the arrow would change since A1 did complete the AP throw-in.
4-42-5 says: "The throw-in ends when the passed ball touches, or is touched by, an inbounds player other than the thrower."

In the situation in question, the ball is touched by an out-of-bounds player, no?
You need to check R7-6-1.
R7-6-1 concurs with 9-2-2 in that " . . . The ball shall be passed by the thrower directly into the court from out-of-bound so it touches or is touched by another player (in bounds or out of bounds) on the court before going out of bounds untouched", meaning, I believe, that the thrower violates if s/he throws the ball onto the court and it goes out of bounds without first touching or being touched by a player in or out of bounds.

(Writing the same rule slightly differently in different places - what a concept, eh?)
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