New violation: unintended advantage?

[Jurassic Referee]

Originally posted by Ref in PA
Jeff T.

I had a play in the middle of the 4th quarter between two rivals last year that was similar. I was the lead ahead of a fastbreak 2-2. The A1 dumped the ball to A2 on the wing when the A1 reached the top of the key. B1 attempted to take a charge from the A1, but really flopped. B1 then proceded to do a "leg take-down" on A1. Meanwhile A2 is driving for the lay up, having beaten B2. By the time I realize what B1 did, A2 is in his shooting motion. I blow the whistle.

My ruling: The bucket counts because A2 was in his motion, common foul on B1, A1 shoots 1 and 1.

Since this play happened at the end of the season, it has bothered me since - mainly because of the timing. What I did not do - and I believe was my biggest mistake - I did not talk with my partner on the timing of what he saw. If it really happened that way, then I can defend the call. If it did not happen that way, if the foul by B1 was before A2 started his motion, then I did the delay whistle and got it wrong.

I guess all I am saying is that calling it that way bothered me. Even though it was a bang-bang play, lots of explanations were needed for the coach and the home town crowd was not happy.

Right outa case book play 6.7SitD. Quit second-guessing yourself. It ain't healthy.

[Nevadaref]

Ref in PA,
I applaud your conscientiousness. Perhaps the foul occurred prior to the start of the trying motion, perhaps it occurred after. The timing of the foul is what matters, not when you blew your whistle.

You did the best you could on that particular play. You learned from it. You will handle it better next time.

I do want to ask about what you characterize as a "leg take-down." You wrote that you called a common foul.

Was this action done out of anger for not getting the PC call or as a last ditch effort to prevent the offensive player from getting wide open for a lay-in? Was it a purposeful trip? If so, that sounds intentional to me.

[Ref in PA]

Originally posted by Nevadaref
Ref in PA,
I do want to ask about what you characterize as a "leg take-down." You wrote that you called a common foul.

Was this action done out of anger for not getting the PC call or as a last ditch effort to prevent the offensive player from getting wide open for a lay-in? Was it a purposeful trip? If so, that sounds intentional to me.

I did feel the act was intentional by B1 in entangling his legs with A1, but at the same time B1 disguised it by attempting a get up move. B1 made sure there was contact tried to make it look innocent as A1 fell to the floor. B1 did a similar play earlier in the game and it was a no-call in my partner's primary. I caught the play out of the corner of my eye and wondered "Did I just see what I thought I saw?" So, when I saw the move again, I feel I recognized it for what it was worth.

These were my options that I thought about in that split second you have before you announce and sell the call:

1. No Bucket, intentional foul on B1.
2. Bucket, intentional foul on B1.
3. No Bucket, common foul on B1.
4. Bucket, common foul on B1.
5. Flagrant foul on B1.

I asked myself two questions - do I count the bucket and how severe should the penalty be for the foul. I must admit I compromised my position on the foul after I decided to count the bucket. I did not think B1's actions were flagrant with intent to injure, but they were a non basketball move in my book and I probably could have sold that call also. I felt the fairest thing to do was to call a common foul. The call was sold, the coach and crowd did not like it, but what else is new? I just wish I felt better about the timing of the play.

If I had of consulted my partner and he felt the contact away from the ball was before the shooting motion of A2, I would have called the intentional foul.

I did learn from this and by sharing my goof, hopefully others can learn from it also.