hand's part of the ball

[Jurassic Referee]

Originally posted by canuckrefguy
Here's a thought....

If the hand is part of the ball, and B1 slaps A1's hand while on the ball, causing the ball to go out of bounds....

Would it not be A's ball - because if B1 touched A1's hand while it was on the ball, it was the same as touching the ball (because the rule says the hand is part of the ball), therefore, technically, B1 was last to touch the ball - so the ball should go to Team A.

Nope, the rule doesn't say the hand is part of the ball. The rule (R10-6-1) sez "He/she shall not contact an opponent with his/her hand unless such contact is only with the opponent's hand while it is on the ball and is incidental to an attempt to play the ball". Iow, if you judge the whack on the hand "incidental contact", then it ain't a foul.

The other relevant rule is R7-2-1, which sez "The ball is caused to go out of bounds by the last player in bounds to touch it, or be touched by it...".

Put 'em together, and the only possible calls, by strict interpretation of the rules (I think) is:
1) Judge the contact on A1's hand by B1 as a foul on B1.
2) Judge the contact on A1's hand by B1 as incidental contact, which means no foul---> but A1 was now the last player to touch the ball in bounds---> so you end up with a B throw-in.

Anybody disagree with that from a strict rules standpoint?

PS- Personally, I'm in favor of giving the ball back to A for a throw-in. I think that this was the original purpose and intent of the rules. B shouldn't benefit or gain an advantage after initiating the physical contact in this case imo.