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-   -   hand's part of the ball (https://forum.officiating.com/basketball/21302-hands-part-ball.html)

devdog69 Sun Jul 17, 2005 03:28pm

[QUOTE]Originally posted by blindzebra
[B][QUOTE]Originally posted by Camron Rust
Quote:

Sometimes common sense and the spirit and intent within the rules are needed and this play fits that need.
AMEN!

Camron Rust Sun Jul 17, 2005 03:28pm

Quote:

Originally posted by devdog69
Quote:

Originally posted by Camron Rust
Quote:

Originally posted by blindzebra
Just because it does not use those exact words, what the heck else does contact on the hand, while on the ball mean other than the hand is considered part of the ball while playing the ball?

A coach asks, "Didn't my player get hit?"

What are you going to answer with?

"Contact that is incidental to playing the ball that contacts the hand while it's on the ball, by rule, is not a foul coach."

Or

"The hand's part of the ball coach."

Same thing, #2, like it or not, is what #1 is saying.

Agreed...in the context of a foul...not for OOB.

Camron, so you are saying that A1 is dribbling and B1 slaps and gets hand/ball or all hand and the ball goes out of bounds it is B's ball for the ensuing throw-in?

No. Hand & Ball and I'm giving it to A. Hand only (which I don't recall ever actually happening) and I'm giving it to B.

Jimgolf Mon Jul 18, 2005 12:24am

If hitting the dribbler's hand causes the ball to go out of bounds, then it is not incidental contact, and therefore a foul.

However, I'm not going to call a foul. As far as I'm concerned, I saw B hit it OOB, and I'm awarding the ball to A. I suspect that in practice, most of you are going to call it that way as well.

That's my story and I'm sticking to it.

BTW, can we add "The hand is part of the ball" to the list of rules myths?

blindzebra Mon Jul 18, 2005 12:41am

Quote:

Originally posted by Jimgolf
If hitting the dribbler's hand causes the ball to go out of bounds, then it is not incidental contact, and therefore a foul.

However, I'm not going to call a foul. As far as I'm concerned, I saw B hit it OOB, and I'm awarding the ball to A. I suspect that in practice, most of you are going to call it that way as well.

That's my story and I'm sticking to it.

BTW, can we add "The hand is part of the ball" to the list of rules myths?

Wrong.

The rule says incidental to playing the ball, not incidental contact. What happens to the ball has nothing to do with it being a foul or not. We are to judge whether or not the defender was playing the ball and frankly short of the defender saying I'm intentially going to hit that hand, it would be highly unlikely it could ever be ruled a foul.

It's not a myth, what else does 10-6-1 say if it is not, the hand is considered part of the ball while playing the ball?

canuckrefguy Mon Jul 18, 2005 12:44am

Quote:

Originally posted by blindzebra
Quote:

Originally posted by Jimgolf
If hitting the dribbler's hand causes the ball to go out of bounds, then it is not incidental contact, and therefore a foul.

However, I'm not going to call a foul. As far as I'm concerned, I saw B hit it OOB, and I'm awarding the ball to A. I suspect that in practice, most of you are going to call it that way as well.

That's my story and I'm sticking to it.

BTW, can we add "The hand is part of the ball" to the list of rules myths?

Wrong.

The rule says incidental to playing the ball, not incidental contact. What happens to the ball has nothing to do with it being a foul or not. We are to judge whether or not the defender was playing the ball and frankly short of the defender saying I'm intentially going to hit that hand, it would be highly unlikely it could ever be ruled a foul.

It's not a myth, what else does 10-6-1 say if it is not, the hand is considered part of the ball while playing the ball?

So I ask, AGAIN....

If this is so, should we not award the ball back to Team A - because the hand is part of the ball, and therefore contacting the hand while on the ball is the same has hitting only the ball?

blindzebra Mon Jul 18, 2005 12:53am

Quote:

Originally posted by canuckrefguy
Quote:

Originally posted by blindzebra
Quote:

Originally posted by Jimgolf
If hitting the dribbler's hand causes the ball to go out of bounds, then it is not incidental contact, and therefore a foul.

However, I'm not going to call a foul. As far as I'm concerned, I saw B hit it OOB, and I'm awarding the ball to A. I suspect that in practice, most of you are going to call it that way as well.

That's my story and I'm sticking to it.

BTW, can we add "The hand is part of the ball" to the list of rules myths?

Wrong.

The rule says incidental to playing the ball, not incidental contact. What happens to the ball has nothing to do with it being a foul or not. We are to judge whether or not the defender was playing the ball and frankly short of the defender saying I'm intentially going to hit that hand, it would be highly unlikely it could ever be ruled a foul.

It's not a myth, what else does 10-6-1 say if it is not, the hand is considered part of the ball while playing the ball?

So I ask, AGAIN....

If this is so, should we not award the ball back to Team A - because the hand is part of the ball, and therefore contacting the hand while on the ball is the same has hitting only the ball?

Unfortunately, it says that only under 10-6-1 talking about contact that is or is not a foul and not under 7-2-1. Common sense tells me that it could easily be applied to OOB plays as well, but the rules, as written, don't back that up.

What most officials are saying, and then calling, is that it is not likely that B would hit all hand without touching some ball.

rainmaker Mon Jul 18, 2005 12:58am

Quote:

Originally posted by blindzebra
What most officials are saying, and then calling, is that it is not likely that B would hit all hand without touching some ball.
In other words, that on this play B hit some ball by definition. Sort of like Miss Manners saying that all babies and all brides are beautiful by definition.

SavaahnTy Mon Jul 18, 2005 01:30am

LOL.. you know what is interesting?

My female roommate, who I am trying to get to start officiating, made this comment as we were sitting here looking over this and many other posts.

" Why does it seem like some of those guys are just looking for ways to screw the players and show how smart they are for knowing the exact rule? "

I attempted to explain the " spirit of the rule " theory....

" So is it by the book... or " spirit "? How the **** am I supposed to know? "

ahhhh, the joys of officiating! :)

SavaahnTy Mon Jul 18, 2005 01:34am

CANUCK!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

great great joke!!!! ( generals were due )

canuckrefguy Mon Jul 18, 2005 01:42am

Quote:

Originally posted by blindzebra
What most officials are saying, and then calling, is that it is not likely that B would hit all hand without touching some ball.
I would like to think that if B did not touch any of the ball, A should still keep possession - and that most if not all coaches would not have a problem with it (though it's foolish to assume what coaches won't complain about).

If a coach were to complain, I would blow my whistle, and immediately change my call to a foul on B1 :D

SavaahnTy Mon Jul 18, 2005 01:55am

AWSOME!

I thought I was the only one who has done that ;)

If I should have had a foul... but dont right away, and you wanna complain... then I will agree... I should make the correct call.

Thanks for your help coach!!!!

:) Having fun with the situation at the moment.

The Generals have to win sometime.. dont they?

blindzebra Mon Jul 18, 2005 02:12am

Quote:

Originally posted by rainmaker
Quote:

Originally posted by blindzebra
What most officials are saying, and then calling, is that it is not likely that B would hit all hand without touching some ball.
In other words, that on this play B hit some ball by definition. Sort of like Miss Manners saying that all babies and all brides are beautiful by definition.

Or breathtaking if you are a Seinfeld fan.:D

rainmaker Mon Jul 18, 2005 10:38am

Quote:

Originally posted by blindzebra
...if you are a Seinfeld fan.:D
Which I"m not.

canuckrefguy Mon Jul 18, 2005 12:06pm

Quote:

Originally posted by rainmaker
Quote:

Originally posted by blindzebra
...if you are a Seinfeld fan.:D
Which I"m not.

Not that there's anything wrong with that.....:p

blindzebra Mon Jul 18, 2005 12:27pm

Quote:

Originally posted by rainmaker
Quote:

Originally posted by blindzebra
...if you are a Seinfeld fan.:D
Which I"m not.

Too bad, that came from one of their funniest shows.

They were in the Hamptons and George had a shrinkage problem and Elaine was called breathtaking by an attractive doctor, unfortunately he called an ugly baby breathtaking too.


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