a1 driving for a lay up on a fast break , b1 from behind grabs player from behind to prevent player from scoring. official calls a intentional foul, as the call is being made to the table, b1 tells ref some choice words, ref t's b1 is he ejected at that point.

Not unless you call a flagrant "T" or another Unsportsmanline "T".

An intentional foul is not in the same catagory as "T"

There are a number of variables.
If the intentional was B1's fourth foul, then the technical would be his 5th. He's done.
If he's already got a technical, then this is his 2nd T, and he's done.
If what he said was deemed by the official to be especially unsporting (threats, racial slurs, etc), then he could have called a flagrant T, in which case B1 is done. A spectator would have a hard time distinguishing between a flagrant T and a normal T, as the mechanics look identical except for what the official tells the scorer and coaches.

What's your question?

Ahhh, finally, a question!

My thoughts exactly. I read the original post and thought "So?"

Depending on the choice words, the player can get the heave-ho.

Right at the end of his post, he asks "is he ejected at that point?"

There was a question asked. Are you guys hung up on the fact that he forgot to put the question mark, and maybe that is why you failed to answer him? jeez

Unless the foul was flagrant or his choice words were considered "flagrant", the answer is no.

Don't confuse "fouling out" with ejection. Ejection must be reported to the state (here) and means the player is disqualified for the next game. Being "done" has more than one meaning.

Point taken. But I assumed we're dealing with a question from a fan, and to the fans, there is no difference for that game. I was pointing out a possible explanation for why that player may not have played the rest of the game.