New interpretation

[Mark T. DeNucci, Sr.]

Originally posted by Jurassic Referee

I should know better than to question you but some of our officials who took the state certification test this year said this was a question on the test and the test answer was no the violation does not carry over. The interpretation they were given was that when you grant the TO you make the ball dead. According to the rules the free throw ends on a dead ball. The TO call ended the free throw so after the TO the free throw is a completely new one the violation can not carry over.
[/B]

You're kiddin', right?

If the FT ends with a TO, then how can you administer another one after the TO? You can't because that FT has ended, according to your guys. Iow, A1 is given the ball to shoot a FT- say the first shot of a 1/1. He calls a time-out and he now loses that FT because it ended. Other team has to get the ball now. That's a ludicrous interpretation. It's a complete mis-reading of Rule 4-20-3.
[/B][/QUOTE]


JR:

Thank you.

MTD, Sr.