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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Thu Jan 13, 2005, 01:26pm
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A1 is in control of the ball and is passing it in the frontcourt. B1 bats the ball to the floor in the frontcourt and it bounces into the air over the backcourt where A2, standing in the backcourt, catches it. Violation or no?

This might fool yah in real time if you haven't done the thought experiment.





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Old Thu Jan 13, 2005, 01:34pm
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No violation. Why is this a hard question?
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  #3 (permalink)  
Old Thu Jan 13, 2005, 01:35pm
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Why should that fool you?

Now if you had said B1 and A2 both went for the ball and touch it at the same time and it returned to A3 in the back court...
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Old Thu Jan 13, 2005, 01:36pm
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My thoughts exactly Smitty. Maybe I need to activate my lateral thinking side of the brain.
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Old Thu Jan 13, 2005, 01:37pm
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Exclamation

I would think A would have to be the cause of the ball going to B/C not B
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  #6 (permalink)  
Old Thu Jan 13, 2005, 01:41pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by assignmentmaker
A1 is in control of the ball and is passing it in the frontcourt. B1 bats the ball to the floor in the frontcourt and it bounces into the air over the backcourt where A2, standing in the backcourt, catches it. Violation or no?

This might fool yah in real time if you haven't done the thought experiment.
Wouldn't fool anybody that reads the case book. Team A gets a new 10-second count too.

Case book play 9.9.1SitC(b)
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  #7 (permalink)  
Old Thu Jan 13, 2005, 01:55pm
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God ya'll are a little snotty.

It fooled a bunch of 'newer' officials, in every case because they were distracted by the issue of ball location. Since the ball doesn't yet have backcourt location when the Team A player touches it (it's in the air and it's location is where it last was), lesser minds than yours ocassionally concluded: "Team A's player 'caused' the ball to go into the backcourt." But ball location, as you point out, isn't the issue.
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Old Thu Jan 13, 2005, 02:07pm
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BlindZebra, that's interesting . . .

"Now if you had said B1 and A2 both went for the ball and touch it at the same time and it returned to A3 in the back court..."

Rule 9.9 says " . . . if he or she or a team mate last touched or was touched by the ball . . .", not " . . . if AND ONLY IF he or she or a team mate last touched or was touched by the ball . . .". So it would appear than the condition as stipulated is met, a was last/first. Has this particular issue been addressed in the Casebook?

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Old Thu Jan 13, 2005, 02:20pm
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If there was apparent simultaneous touching, the offense gets the benefit of the doubt and I have no violation.
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  #10 (permalink)  
Old Thu Jan 13, 2005, 02:29pm
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Re: BlindZebra, that's interesting . . .

Quote:
Originally posted by assignmentmaker
"Now if you had said B1 and A2 both went for the ball and touch it at the same time and it returned to A3 in the back court..."

Rule 9.9 says " . . . if he or she or a team mate last touched or was touched by the ball . . .", not " . . . if AND ONLY IF he or she or a team mate last touched or was touched by the ball . . .". So it would appear than the condition as stipulated is met, a was last/first. Has this particular issue been addressed in the Casebook?

No, it's not.
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