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Old Wed Jan 05, 2005, 01:03am
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Quote:
Originally posted by Jurassic Referee
Quote:
Originally posted by ref18

In the last seconds of the game, you've got a coach who's down by 3 yelling at his team to foul, obviously to stop the clock. Now you can see there's direct intent to foul, but the contact that his players put on the offence is enough to cause a disadvantage but not excessive. Do we call this intentional because of the intent to stop the clock??
The FED said in that old POE that it was supposed to be an intentional foul if the coach was hollering sumthin' like "foul them". Common sense (imo) sez that if the defender makes a legitimate attempt to play the ball (in your opinion), then just call it normally- i.e. a regular personal foul. I think that the purpose and intent of the intentional foul rule is to differentiate between normal defensive fouls and fouls that aren't designed to be part of a normal defensive play such as trying to steal the ball or block a shot, etc.

Iow, if you feel that the defender is trying to make a legitimate steal, etc. and fouls while doing so, forget about the intentional foul.
JR,
I remember this, but I don't have my Rules Book from 2000-01. Wish I had kept it. Could you please post exactly what that POE says about the coach yelling to foul the opponents?
Thanks.
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