Violation?

[Just Curious]

Team A is inbounding the ball at an endline. A1 has the ball, out-of-bounds, for the throw-in at one end of the endline and passes the ball the entire length of the endline to A2 standing at the opposite end of the same endline.
Q1. A3, in bounds, is in the key. A3's effort, to secure the ball, causes him to reach through the out-of-bounds plane where he catches the ball.
Q2. B1, in bounds, is in the key. B1's effort, to secure the ball, causes him to reach through the out-of-bounds plane where he catches the ball.
Violations?? If yes... What's the penalty?
jc

[BktBallRef]

I'm making three assumptions on things that aren't clear:
1- This not a spot throw-in.
2- In both plays, the player inbounds touches the pass from A1 to A2.
3- When you say key, you mean FT lane.

Originally posted by Just Curious
Team A is inbounding the ball at an endline. A1 has the ball, out-of-bounds, for the throw-in at one end of the endline and passes the ball the entire length of the endline to A2 standing at the opposite end of the same endline.
Q1. A3, in bounds, is in the key. A3's effort, to secure the ball, causes him to reach through the out-of-bounds plane where he catches the ball.

Violation. 9-2-3, 9.2.2B.(b)

Q2. B1, in bounds, is in the key. B1's effort, to secure the ball, causes him to reach through the out-of-bounds plane where he catches the ball.
Violations?? If yes... What's the penalty?
jc

Technical foul and delay of game warning. 9-2-11 Penalty
Since this was not a throw-in pass, the defense cannot touch the ball when it's passed from A1 to A2.

[Bart Tyson]

If A2 has already received the ball and releases the ball for the throw-in, and B1 reaches through the OOB plane to touch the ball, then it is a violation and a warning.

[BktBallRef]

Originally posted by Bart Tyson
If A2 has already received the ball and releases the ball for the throw-in, and B1 reaches through the OOB plane to touch the ball, then it is a violation and a warning.

Bart, whether A2 has received the ball or not, is of no consequence. It's a technical foul on B1 and a warning. B1 can't break the plane until the throw-in pass has been released. If he does, it's a warning but if he touches the ball, it's a T. 9-2-11

[Bart Tyson]

Thanks BktBallRef, On the court i don't think i've been faced with having to make a decision for a T. Once the player releases the ball and a defender hits it it usually goes right back OOB or in play. Hard to tell if the player touched the ball on the OOB side. The only time i've called a T is when it is still in the hands of the thrower.

[BktBallRef]

Originally posted by Bart Tyson
Thanks BktBallRef, On the court i don't think i've been faced with having to make a decision for a T. Once the player releases the ball and a defender hits it it usually goes right back OOB or in play. Hard to tell if the player touched the ball on the OOB side. The only time i've called a T is when it is still in the hands of the thrower.

Don't confuse what I said. If the pass is a throw-in, B1 can reach through the plane and touch the ball after the release on the OOB side. This is a legal play. Then make your call if the ball goes OOB. Inbounds and it's a free ball.

However, in the original play, the pass from A1 to A2 occurred when both players were OOB after a made basket. The pass from A1 to A2 in this sitch is not a throw-in pass. It's no different than touching or dislodging the ball while A1 is holding it.

[Wondering]

This was originally my question which I posed to Just Curious who posted it. So I will clarify the situation.

A1 is making a spot throw-in from one end of the end-line. A3 is inbounds at the other end of the end-line. A1's throw is nearly parallel to the end-line and outside the end-line most of the time on it's way towards A3.

Can B2, standing inbounds (between A1 and A3) reach over the end-line and intercept the ball, which is still outside the endline, after A1 releases it?

If so, why should it be legal for B2 to intecept the out-of-bounds ball but no one on A's team (see rule 9-2.3)?

Along these same lines, another question is this: what does rule 9-2-2 mean when it says the thrower must pass the ball "directly into the court"? Has the thrower fulfulled his obligation if the ball is intercepted out-of-bounds?

[BktBallRef]

Originally posted by Wondering
This was originally my question which I posed to Just Curious who posted it. So I will clarify the situation.

A1 is making a spot throw-in from one end of the end-line. A3 is inbounds at the other end of the end-line. A1's throw is nearly parallel to the end-line and outside the end-line most of the time on it's way towards A3.

Can B2, standing inbounds (between A1 and A3) reach over the end-line and intercept the ball, which is still outside the endline, after A1 releases it?

Yes. Restrictions on B are lifted when the ball is released on a throw-in.

If so, why should it be legal for B2 to intecept the out-of-bounds ball but no one on A's team (see rule 9-2.3)?

Because 9-2-3 says that can't. I can't give you any better reason. Why do we shoot FTs when B is in the bonus, if A1 sets an illegal screen but we don't when A1 is called for a player control foul?

Along these same lines, another question is this: what does rule 9-2-2 mean when it says the thrower must pass the ball "directly into the court"? Has the thrower fulfulled his obligation if the ball is intercepted out-of-bounds?

It simply means if the ball touches anywhere OOB, A has violated. It would be legal to pass the ball and hit the back of the backboard or hit the floor OOB, without this rule. The thrower has fulfilled his obligations and can't be penalized because B makes a legal play.

[Hawks Coach]

Under this new explanation, yes the throw is legal. Imagine being on the sideline, feet three feet back and throwing with your outside arm upcourt to a player just inside the sideline 80 feet away. Nothing says this is illegal as long as the throw crosses the plane of the boundary and enters the court.

A cannot receive it until it has crossed the plane (r9-2-3). R9-2-11 says that B may not break the plane until the ball is released on a throw in pass. I would think that if it is spot throw-in, there would be no violation on any touch by B after release. Either A releases without it being a throw in pass (violation on A before plane was broken) or it is a throw in pass and B can break plane.

[Lotto]

It looks like the NCAA rules (which we use for NY high schools) are a little different here:

Section 4. Throw-in

Art. 1. The thrower-in shall not:

b. Fail to pass the ball directly into the playing court so that after it
crosses the boundary line, it touches or is touched by another
player (inbounds or out of bounds) on the playing court before
going out of bounds. A throw-in that lodges between the backboard
and the ring or comes to rest on the flange shall be a violation.

Art. 3. The opponents of the thrower-in shall not have any part of their person
beyond the vertical inside plane of any boundary line before the ball
has crossed that boundary line.

(I've deleted all the parts that don't seem to apply to this case.) From this, I conclude that if either A (based on 9.4.1b) or B (based on 9.4.3) touches the ball before it crosses the boundary line into the court, it's a violation.