Jurassic Referee |
Sun Dec 19, 2004 04:15pm |
Re: false double foul?
Quote:
Originally posted by Hotlink501
(1) Would not a false double foul be a common foul on both teams when at least one component is missing of a double foul.
(2) By definition alone, dead ball automatically makes it an intentional foul and not a false double foul, therefor the person foulded would have to shoot the freethrows.
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Lemme try again:
(1) No, they do not have to be <b>common</b> fouls on both teams. Neither one of the fouls has to be a common foul. They can be <b>any</b> combination of any type of foul by either team--i.e. common foul, intentional personal foul, flagrant personal foul, player control foul, technical foul, intentional technical foul, flagrant technical foul or a team technical foul.
(2) No, by definition a dead ball does <b>not</b> automatically make it an intentional foul. A dead ball foul could be a technical foul, an intentional technical foul, a flagrant technical foul or a team technical foul. Intentional fouls can be either personal or technical in nature.
The point is that it doesn't matter what <b>kind</b> of foul is called- or whether it is the first or second foul foul called. All that matters is that the fouls are called in the order outlined in the definition of a false double foul. One foul of any kind is called. Then, before the clock starts again, another foul of any kind is called. You penalize each foul in the the order that they occur. That's a false double foul.
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