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Old Wed Jan 10, 2001, 11:00am
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Had a very competitive JV game last night. About one minute left in the game. Team A is ahead by 3. After a time out , Team A is inbounding the ball. Prior to play, I heard Team B coach tell his team to foul. As Team B players re-enter the court, I tell them to make sure they go for the ball when they foul (preventive officiating, right?). After the ball is inbounded, Team B coach is screaming for his team to foul. B1 runs at A1 and gives him a big bear hug. The foul was not malicious but B1 did not make any attempt for the ball. I called an intentional. Team B caoch went crazy. He told me the intentional foul rule was to eliminate injuries and malicious fouls. What do y'all think? During this same game , we also had an inadverdant whistle. Team B coach said teh possesion goes to the arrow. A1 had possesion at the time. I awarded Team A the ball out of bounds. Correct call?

Another situation I was curious about is concerning back court. The ball is established in Team A's front court. The ball is passed by A1 to A2. The pass is too long for A2 and is going into the BC. Before the ball touches the floor(in the back court), A2 jumps from the front court. While in the air, he crosses the division line and bats the ball back to the front court. The play is similar to an out of bounds save but at mid court. What is the call?
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Old Wed Jan 10, 2001, 11:13am
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Tough one...

I don't know... I'd certainly stick with you if I were your partner - you took the liberty to inform the players, and more importantly, you WERE calling it by the book. Then again, I'm not sure that I, personally, would have called it, being how it was a tight game. But I certainly don't think you can fault yourself for calling something by the book. Also, no backcourt violation since the player jumped from the FC - retaining his FC status regardless of where he touched the ball.
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Old Wed Jan 10, 2001, 11:15am
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[QUOTE]Originally posted by Mike O
"...(preventive officiating, right?)."


Good!

After the ball is inbounded, Team B coach is screaming for his team to foul. B1 runs at A1 and gives him a big bear hug. The foul was not malicious but B1 did not make any attempt for the ball. I called an intentional.

Good! Not only was there NO play on ball (as you just reminded them), the coach violated one of the POE's for this year!

Team B caoch went crazy. He told me the intentional foul rule was to eliminate injuries and malicious fouls. What do y'all think?

See response right above!

During this same game , we also had an inadverdant whistle. Team B coach said the possesion goes to the arrow. A1 had possesion at the time. I awarded Team A the ball out of bounds. Correct call?

YES! Don't listen to the coaches...it'll get you into trouble almost EVERY time!

Another situation I was curious about is concerning back court. The ball is established in Team A's front court. The ball is passed by A1 to A2. The pass is too long for A2 and is going into the BC. Before the ball touches the floor(in the back court), A2 jumps from the front court. While in the air, he crosses the division line and bats the ball back to the front court. The play is similar to an out of bounds save but at mid court. What is the call?

NO BCV!
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Old Wed Jan 10, 2001, 11:22am
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Hey Mike, you made the right call on the intentional.
Further, the coach is just plain wrong with what he
said about the purpose of the rule. On the inadvertent
whistle, you only go with the arrow if there's no
team possesion (as in during a FT follwed by a live ball
or a shot). Otherwise, as has been said, the team with the
bal lkeeps it.
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Old Wed Jan 10, 2001, 11:32am
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Dan ref has it right! your calls were correct and there is no back court violation in your situation.
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Old Wed Jan 10, 2001, 10:01pm
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BC Violation

With regards to the player in FC or BC (and I think it applies to a few other in-the-air situations (IB, OOB)), I once read a great piece of advice:

"You are where you were until you get where you are going."

I don't know who said it (it was on another officiating web site), so if anyone does know, please help me by giving them proper credit.
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Old Wed Jan 10, 2001, 11:17pm
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Mark D, I read it quoted here, I think by our old correspondent Todd Van but I wouldn't swear by it.

And it sounds to me like the coach is confused between flagrant and intentional fouls. I can't swear to the original reason for the intentional foul rule, but differentiating between flagrant and intentional fouls distinguishes the malicious foul with intent (or potential) to injure from the merely intentional noninjurious foul. Here there was intent to foul but nothing malicious, so his player remains in the game

maybe Dave would tell him that if he wants a really bad call, he'll be happy to change it to flagrant!
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