Did anyone notice that during Game 1 NBA Finals and a couple times during game 2 when the Lakers (usually Shaq) was shooting a free throw a player on the Pistons (Prince?) came running into rebound from behind the 3 point line before the shot was released. Sometimes it looked close to the same time but other times it was obvious (at least to me) that it was before the release. The officials have no called it every time. On most of these occasions Shaq made the shot so I understand the no call but on at least one occasion he missed the shot. Is the NBA rule different? Anyone know why this was no called? I am wondering if the NBA just ignores this violation unless that player gets the rebound.

Any one know what the signal for a delayed lane violation is in the NBA? On the occasions that this happened when Shaq did make the shot I rewound the tape a few times and couldn't see any signal by the officials (But only the L and C were on the screen-maybe the T had something)

I am not just a fan boy-I want the Pistons to win-wondering why my team was getting away with this.

[Edited by oc on Jun 10th, 2004 at 12:15 AM]

The NBA rule is different. They allow players outside the 3-point arc to enter the lane on the release of the FT, just as the players along the lane are allowed to enter on the release.

In HS and NCAA, the players outside the 3-point arc must wait for the ball to hit the rim or backboard before breaking the plane of the arc.

If Prince was crossing the 3-point arc before the FT was released, that should've been a delayed violation. But it's certainly possible that they ignore it unless the player gets the rebound. I can't address that.

I've been wondering about this for some time. I always noticed that the Nets do this a lot especially Keith Van Horn.

I wonder if it is decided if the one who jumped gets the board, maybe then they call it. But really, WHO KNOWS!?

I find that really interesting aswell. I have always wondered about that same rule. I have seen it in some of the NBA games i waatched. (I can't remember which team did it now though, might have been the Nets, not too sure anymore) I pondered the same idea that they just ignore the violation unless that player gets the rebound or something along those lines.

I guess you do learn something new everyday...

Did anyone see the traveling violation that Steve Javie called on Gary Payton in the 2nd half? Payton picked up his dribble in the BC. With no one to pass to, he stepped, picked up his pivot but didn't return it to the floor. Javie whistled the travel.

Without looking, I don't believe the NBA rule is any different than the NF or NCAA rule. It was not traveling.

You mean, "not any different in this situation"?

How about the violations on the opening tip in ALL THREE games! The officials are really calling that closely and are consistently calling it. I wonder if they got a directive on this.

Ah....no, I don't think that's what I meant, is it? If I had included "not" wouldn't that have been a double negative? :confused:

BTW, did he travel or not? :)

From the description, I agree with you. I wasn't trying to insert the word "not" into your sentence. I was trying to say that the NBA travel rule has some differences from the Fed, so I thought you meant the NBA rule <i> for this situation only </i> is the same as the Fed. Overall, there are a number of differences between the two travel rules, aren't there?

[Edited by rainmaker on Jun 12th, 2004 at 08:16 PM]

Cool! I ws just confused by your question.
 

Yeah but I don't think this is one of them.

I think I've said this before, but the only real difference between the NBA's traveling rule and the FED/NCAA rule is in how the pivot is established. Once a pivot foot is established, however, I believe the rules regarding what you can do from that pivot are the same.

I have not officiated NBA rules in a couple years now, so I might be rusty (or less likely, they may have changed); but that's my recollection.

The move of establishing your pivot foot...lifting your pivot foot prior to a pass or shot...and then passing or shooting prior to putting the pivot foot back down, is one of many areas that caught my attention as I read through the rule book for the first time.

I have always thought, previously to reading the rule book, that once you lift the pivot foot it is a travel.

Now, am I correct in thinking, just as in the Gary Payton situation, you can (1) establish a pivot foot anywhere on the floor (2) before or after a dribble occurs (3) and you can lift the pivot foot anytime after...as long as you PASS or SHOOT before returning the pivot foot to the floor? In other words, this move does not have to occur in the post, or in conjunction with a move to the basket?

Yes.

Lifting the pivot foot is not traveling, unless you do it before releasing a dribble.

If this were true, then jump shots would be illegal. :)

A jump stop wouldn't necessarily have to be illegal. Jump stops can easily occur as a dribble is ending. Which means a pivot foot was never established.