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Old Thu Dec 28, 2000, 11:06pm
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Question: can a player be an air born shooter without the ball?? E.G. a lob pass is thrown to a player in the post. As the player goes up to receive the pass and before he touches it, the defensive player gives him a push. Because he is a good athelete, the offensive player still manages to catch the ball in spite of the push and the drops the ball in the hoop. What do you have?? He was fouled before he had the ball while in the air. Do you give him the basket and a free throw, or what?? Appreciate any feedback people might have!! thanks
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Old Thu Dec 28, 2000, 11:14pm
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on a lob pass, as soon as the player dishes the ball he becomes like any other player on the court. So if barrells into a defender after dishing the pass it is a pushing foul not a PC foul and therefore we could have the defensive player shooting if team fouls permit.

An airborn player doesn't get to shoot unless he had the ball before the foul. This would have to be a tip so look at the tip rule. I would have a nonshooting foul on this one.
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Old Fri Dec 29, 2000, 07:38am
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Quote:
Originally posted by mikeref
Question: can a player be an air born shooter without the ball?? E.G. a lob pass is thrown to a player in the post. As the player goes up to receive the pass and before he touches it, the defensive player gives him a push. Because he is a good athelete, the offensive player still manages to catch the ball in spite of the push and the drops the ball in the hoop. What do you have?? He was fouled before he had the ball while in the air. Do you give him the basket and a free throw, or what?? Appreciate any feedback people might have!! thanks
mikeref,
Hold your whistle on the initial push to see if it will affect the play.
In your case the play was not affected.
If you call the initial push (non-shooting), you are taking away two-points and giving an advantage to the offending team for an illegal action.
If post player was thrown off balance and could not catch the lob, then the push affected the play and should be called.
mick
mick
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Old Fri Dec 29, 2000, 12:07pm
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No, Mike, he's not an airborne shooter until he has possession of the ball.
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Old Fri Dec 29, 2000, 04:51pm
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lets define airborne shooter. Isn't an airborn shooter a player who has RELEASED the ball and not yet returned to the floor? In this situation, if A was fouled prior to gaining control of the ball we have a personal foul on B and no shot.. By definition A could not be "in the act of shooting" because they did not have the ball at the time of the foul.
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Old Sat Dec 30, 2000, 01:02am
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An airborne shooter is a player who has released the ball on a try for a goal or has tapped the ball and has not returned to the floor.

I think everyone who has replied agrees that this is not an airborne shooter if the foul came before the possession of the ball. I say possession because he had already left the floor and the catch and continuous motion are going to be almost simultaneous. If he catches the ball, gets fouled and shoots before he returns to the floor, I would call it a shooting foul.

But in this case, definitely not a shooting foul.
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