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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Mon Apr 05, 2004, 11:55am
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It is my understanding that a made basket that completes a play stops the clock if there is less than 1:00 in the game. (Or perhaps it is one minute or less.) But otherwise the clock runs after a made basket, and can continue to do so for several seconds (the time it takes to get the ball back to the inbounder subject to the official's discretion to stop the clock, plus up to five seconds for the inbound).

Do I have that right? It seemed to have led to an anomolous result in a game in one of the conference tournaments this year. A player scored with 1:01 left on the clock, and it was not until about 50.5 that the 35 second clock began on the possession when the player touched the inbound pass. Yet, if the first player had scored LATER, by a second, the clock would have stopped. That seems anomolous -- by scoring earlier, you run more time off the game. (The same thing can happen in football with the out-of-bounds clock stoppage under 5:00 minutes; if you're trying to conserve clock, you're better off going out of bounds with 4:59 than 5:01.)

Should there be a fix -- like an automatic stoppage at 1:00 until the ball is inbounded. Could this be feasibly done?
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Old Mon Apr 05, 2004, 11:58am
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Quote:
Originally posted by rulesmaven
It is my understanding that a made basket that completes a play stops the clock if there is less than 1:00 in the game. (Or perhaps it is one minute or less.) But otherwise the clock runs after a made basket, and can continue to do so for several seconds (the time it takes to get the ball back to the inbounder subject to the official's discretion to stop the clock, plus up to five seconds for the inbound).

Do I have that right? It seemed to have led to an anomolous result in a game in one of the conference tournaments this year. A player scored with 1:01 left on the clock, and it was not until about 50.5 that the 35 second clock began on the possession when the player touched the inbound pass. Yet, if the first player had scored LATER, by a second, the clock would have stopped. That seems anomolous -- by scoring earlier, you run more time off the game. (The same thing can happen in football with the out-of-bounds clock stoppage under 5:00 minutes; if you're trying to conserve clock, you're better off going out of bounds with 4:59 than 5:01.)

Should there be a fix -- like an automatic stoppage at 1:00 until the ball is inbounded. Could this be feasibly done?
The way the rules are currently written there is nothing wrong in your play. Not sure what there is that needs fixing. Could it be done? Sure, but why?
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  #3 (permalink)  
Old Mon Apr 05, 2004, 12:16pm
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Because it's anomolous. Why have the stoppage in the last minute at all unless you think it serves a purpose. And whatever that purpose might be, it's undermined if ten seconds can run off the clock because a basket is scored one second EARLIER in the game. Makes no sense.

If the desire is to preserve time from running of the clock in non-play situations under one minute, why allow the clock to tick down under a minute in a non-play situation just because of the happenstance of when the player scored.
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Old Mon Apr 05, 2004, 12:19pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by rulesmaven

Should there be a fix -- like an automatic stoppage at 1:00 until the ball is inbounded. Could this be feasibly done?
Yes - the problem would be stopping at exactly one minute. Inevitably, you'd get 59.8 or 1:00.3 (the latter of which couldn't easily be seen) and you'd have to stop the game and have the timer reset the clock to exactly 60.0 seconds each time.

Easier to just let it run.
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Old Mon Apr 05, 2004, 12:35pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by rulesmaven
Because it's anomolous. Why have the stoppage in the last minute at all unless you think it serves a purpose. And whatever that purpose might be, it's undermined if ten seconds can run off the clock because a basket is scored one second EARLIER in the game. Makes no sense.

If the desire is to preserve time from running of the clock in non-play situations under one minute, why allow the clock to tick down under a minute in a non-play situation just because of the happenstance of when the player scored.
Uhmmmm....not sure what the desire is, even less sure why your method is better.

But we all have our own little crusades to fight. Knock yourself out. :shrug:

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Old Mon Apr 05, 2004, 12:39pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by BktBallRef
Quote:
Originally posted by rulesmaven
Because it's anomolous.
There's no such word as "anomolous."

Perhaps you mean "Because it's anomalous."

Anomalous means "deviating from the normal or common order, form, or rule." If the rule is that the clock stops when a bast is scored with 59.9 or less on the clock, then how is that deviating from the rule?

BTW, if you gonna learn and use a new word, at least know how to spell it.
New word today?
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Old Mon Apr 05, 2004, 12:50pm
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"bast"

Man, that's priceless.

I have a new one for you, Bktbllref, that you probably hear often -- pedantic. (Feel free to check my spelling, I didn't look it up, so it could be incorrect.)

Anamalous is the exactly correct word. It's incongrous, paradoxical, irregular, unusual. It makes no sense.

I never suggested the play was called incorrectly under the rule. I was asking whether I understood the rule correctly, and if I did, whether it was a sound rule. I'm still not seeing any justification for it, other than the feasibility problem, which is surely a problem but if it's the best anyone can cite kind of proves my point.

So, if you can get past any possible spelling errors in this post, maybe go back to the original question, which I think is a good one. Can someone articulate a purpose for the rule that is not undermined by the fact that a basket scored with more time in the game (e.g., 1:01) will lead to less game play than a basket scored with less time in the game (e.g., 59.9)? Maybe there is one. I can't think of one. That's why I posted.

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  #8 (permalink)  
Old Mon Apr 05, 2004, 01:08pm
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"Who gives a DEXTER whether the clock stops or not if the basket is scored with 1:01 left? Eveidently no one but you."

Possibly; I can't help that I find it curious, but whatever.

I guess it's a nearly universal Internet truth that when a thread degenerates into spelling corrections, it's probably clear evidence that the thread has outlived its usefullness, so I'm happy to have yours be the last word on the thread. At a minimum, this will be mine.
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  #9 (permalink)  
Old Mon Apr 05, 2004, 02:15pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by rulesmaven
Can someone articulate a purpose for the rule that is not undermined by the fact that a basket scored with more time in the game (e.g., 1:01) will lead to less game play than a basket scored with less time in the game (e.g., 59.9)? Maybe there is one. I can't think of one. That's why I posted.

Original rule: Clock always continues to run. Problem: A team that's ahead can let the clock run out and that's not (in the eyes of the rules committee, coaches, etc.) in the spirit of the game.

Possible Solution: Stop the clock after every made basket. Problem: The game lasts too long. THere's no real disadvantage to either team to stop the clock early on -- each team has plenty of time to adjust to whatever time is left.

Final solution: Stop the clock "near the end of the game." Any decision on the definition of this time (:30, 1:00, 2:00, etc) is arbitrary. It needs to be long enough so that it's not a disadvantage if it continues to run, but short enough that it doesn't lengthen the game too much. The committee decided 1:00 was a good compromise. Shrug.
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Old Mon Apr 05, 2004, 09:01pm
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rulesmaven,

Just so you don't think you're completely crazy for thinking there might be another way to do things, in the NBA, the rule is the way you suggest. If a basket is scored with more than 2:00 remaining in the 4th quarter or OT, and the ball is not inbounded before the game clock reaches 2:00, then the clock is stopped until the ball is touched inbounds. The game clock must be stopped anytime the ball is not in play during the last 2:00 of the game. (The above explanation also applies during the last 1:00 of the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd quarters.)

It just so happens that the rule is written differently in the NCAA. No big whoop. Just two ways of interpreting the same kind of rule.
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  #11 (permalink)  
Old Tue Apr 06, 2004, 09:20am
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Quote:
Originally posted by ChuckElias
The game clock must be stopped anytime the ball is not in play during the last 2:00 of the game. (The above explanation also applies during the last 1:00 of the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd quarters.)
Chuck,

I've heard this before, but can't seem to think of any time the ball isn't in play other than after a made basket (already covered in the 2 minute rule) or after a whistle (covered in the other 'stop the clock' rules).

Are there any other situations?
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Old Tue Apr 06, 2004, 08:02pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by Mark Dexter
Are there any other situations?
No, I don't think so. The phrasing "any time the ball is not in play" is used specifically so that the clock will stop after a made basket, even if the basket happens to be scored slightly before the 2:00 mark of the 4th quarter (or the 1:00 mark in the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd quarters).
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  #13 (permalink)  
Old Tue Apr 06, 2004, 08:42pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by BktBallRef

However, my mistake is that I can't type, not that I can't spell.

Eveidently no one but you.
Evidently, you can't "type" evidently.
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Old Tue Apr 06, 2004, 09:07pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by Mark Padgett
Evidently, you can't "type" evidently.
Appareantly
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Old Tue Apr 06, 2004, 09:27pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by ChuckElias
Quote:
Originally posted by Mark Padgett
Evidently, you can't "type" evidently.
Appareantly
C'mon...anyone can make a misteak!
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