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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Wed Dec 13, 2000, 03:19pm
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A1 has the ball for a throw-in. His team has set up for a play. To start the play, he bounces the ball once (as opposed to slapping it). It does not contact the end line. He also maintains control of the ball.

Do we have anything or is this legal?
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Old Wed Dec 13, 2000, 03:33pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by BigDave
A1 has the ball for a throw-in. His team has set up for a play. To start the play, he bounces the ball once (as opposed to slapping it). It does not contact the end line. He also maintains control of the ball.

Do we have anything or is this legal?
He can bounce the ball as many times as he wants within five seconds as long as he bounces it OOB. BTW - that includes bouncing it on the line (which is OOB), although that brings up an interesting nit-picky point. Here it is:

We know that if A1 holds the ball over the court, it is "fair game". What if he bounces downward it so the ball hits the line, but part of the ball technically is over the line? Since the ball is round, this is probable. Can B1 grab the ball legally, since part of it is over the court? What if he does but his hands break the plane in doing so? The ball has not yet been released "toward the court".

Have fun with this one, guys.
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  #3 (permalink)  
Old Wed Dec 13, 2000, 03:51pm
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If the ball technically hits the inbounds portion of the court....and the hand of the defender technically breaks the plane.....and the ball technically was "Not releases toward the court."
If the defender cleanly secured the ball I would give the defender the steal. Reason if the offensive player is that close to the line to have the ball going straight down versus toward the court, part of the ball has broken the plane!!

If either coach was yelling.... you have the best angle... considering the throw-in was on the endline!!!

I didn't know that we had to be geomerty experts to officiate! Planes, lines, angles!

AK se REF
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  #4 (permalink)  
Old Wed Dec 13, 2000, 06:38pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by Mark Padgett

We know that if A1 holds the ball over the court, it is "fair game". What if he bounces downward it so the ball hits the line, but part of the ball technically is over the line? Since the ball is round, this is probable. Can B1 grab the ball legally, since part of it is over the court? What if he does but his hands break the plane in doing so? The ball has not yet been released "toward the court".
For simplicity, make it such that the ball is still in the hands of the thrower since it is essentially the same.

For NF, the ball is fair game when any part of the ball breaks the plane of the throw-in boundary.

For NCAA, the ball is only fair game when the entire ball is through the plane of the throw-in boundary.

So, for NF, the defense may grab the ball when only part is through. But as you suggested, they may not break the plane until the throw-in is released. It would be a violation if they reach through the plane to get their hands on the ball. If they get the ball without their hands breaking the plane, good steal.

For NCAA, it would be a T to touch the ball since the ball was still partially behind the line.
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  #5 (permalink)  
Old Wed Dec 13, 2000, 07:30pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by AK ref SE
If the ball technically hits the inbounds portion of the court....
We have a violation.
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