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Old Mon Feb 09, 2004, 11:58am
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Join Date: Jan 2004
Location: Glendale, AZ
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Re: Agreed

Quote:
Originally posted by One-Whistle
A1 attempts the throw-in. B1 slaps the ball back OOB and A1 catches it while standing OOB. Do you give it to A1 for the next throw-in? No, because B1 did NOT commit a violation, just great defense.
In this case the ball would actually be awarded to B.
That's true? Wow. What if A1 doesn't catch the ball, but as B1 taps the ball back inbounds and it hits A1 and goes off him/her while he/she is out of bounds?

See, this is why I read this forum - for stuff like this so that when it comes up, I've got it covered.

Now, this has gotten a little convoluted, but for the new guy, just tell me if I'm reading this correctly: If a team has the ability to run the baseline (after a made basket, which is the only time that's in effect, correct?) on a throwin and their opponents make a good defensive play and knock the throw-in out of bounds over the end line, that ends THAT throw-in and, on the subsequent throw-in, the original team cannot then run the baseline, correct?

Okay, what if, just in case, the team entitled to the throw-in calls time out. When they come back from the time out, can they still run the baseline on the throwin?
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