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Old Fri Jan 16, 2004, 08:37am
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Join Date: Mar 2003
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I am curious as to the reasoning behind the following situation:

Louisville player loses his shoe. E.C. goes on offense but does not score. Louisville now has the ball and Louisville player shows his shoeless foot to the official. Official allows play to continue.

Should the official stop play?

Obviously, I am not an offical but was wondering if play should have been stopped to allow the player to put on his shoe.

thanks,

chris
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Old Fri Jan 16, 2004, 09:04am
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Join Date: Aug 1999
Posts: 18,130
Quote:
Originally posted by chrisl
I am curious as to the reasoning behind the following situation:

Louisville player loses his shoe. E.C. goes on offense but does not score. Louisville now has the ball and Louisville player shows his shoeless foot to the official. Official allows play to continue.

Should the official stop play?

Obviously, I am not an offical but was wondering if play should have been stopped to allow the player to put on his shoe.

thanks,

chris
No, play should not have been stopped.
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