Back court violation??

[mwalker13004]

I had a situation in a game the other day that I thought was the right call at the time but now I'm not sure. Here's the scenario. A1 dribbles into the frontcourt and ball goes off his leg and rolls across court still in Team A frontcourt. A2 and B1 dive for the loose ball and A2 intentionally taps ball back to A1 who is in Team A backcourt without B1 touching the ball. My call was over-and-back because I felt that possesion hadn't changed and the "tap" was intentional back to a teammate. Of course 1/2 the crowd screamed that it was a loose ball and not a violation. Partner was on the baseline and couldn't see so couldn't help. Did I get it right?

[Smiley]

You got it right. If possession didn't change, all that matters is that A was last to touch in the front court and first to touch in the back court. The fact that the ball was loose has no bearing.

[garote]

If B1 doesn't touch it. You've got it right.

[zebracz]

Yes, nice call, Walker.....good job.

welcome to the boards...

[rcwilco]

Good call. The ball going off of the leg is an interrupted dribble which stops player control but team control continues, therefore backcourt.

[BktBallRef]

Originally posted by mwalker13004
My call was over-and-back because I felt that possesion hadn't changed and the "tap" was intentional back to a teammate. Of course 1/2 the crowd screamed that it was a loose ball and not a violation. Partner was on the baseline and couldn't see so couldn't help. Did I get it right?

It makes no difference whether the "tap" is intentional or not. Even if A2 accidentally touched the ball in the FC, and A1 recovered in the BC, it's still a violation.

[mwalker13004]

Would the call have been the same if B1 had touched the ball (but didn't gain control) in A1 frontcourt then A2 intentionally tapped the ball back to A1 in Team A backcourt?

I actually had one about a month ago where a pass by A1 was tipped by B2 then bounced off of A2(Want to say it was their head but not sure) and went into the back court where A2 then recovered the ball. Tweet, violation.

[just another ref]

Originally posted by mwalker13004
Would the call have been the same if B1 had touched the ball (but didn't gain control) in A1 frontcourt then A2 intentionally tapped the ball back to A1 in Team A backcourt?

The call would be the same if B did not gain control and A touched the ball last in the frontcourt whether the last touch by A was intentional or not.

[Back In The Saddle]

It might be helpful to inject Tony's four criteria for a backcourt violation into the discussion:

1. A has team control (which does not end unless B secures control [or a shot or dead ball])
2. Ball has front court status
3. A is the last to touch it in front court (intentionally or not)
4. A is the first to touch it in back court (intentionally or not)

So...unless B secures possession it would not matter if B touched it before A tapped it into back-court.

[bob jenkins]

Originally posted by Back In The Saddle
It might be helpful to inject Tony's four criteria for a backcourt violation into the discussion:

1. A has team control (which does not end unless B secures control [or a shot or dead ball])
2. Ball has front court status
3. A is the last to touch it in front court (intentionally or not)
4. A is the first to touch it in back court (intentionally or not)

So...unless B secures possession it would not matter if B touched it before A tapped it into back-court.

3. A is the last to touch before the ball goes to the BC (it's not necessary to touch in FC)

4. A. is the first to touch after the ball goes to the BC (it's not necesary to touch in the BC)

[BktBallRef]

Originally posted by mwalker13004
Would the call have been the same if B1 had touched the ball (but didn't gain control) in A1 frontcourt then A2 intentionally tapped the ball back to A1 in Team A backcourt?

Again, don't get stuck on the word "intentional." It makes no difference whether the touch was intentional or accidental.