A1 is attempting a throw-in. He holds the ball across the OOB line so that it is over the playing court. A2 reaches for ball and makes contact with ball while it is still in contact with A1's hands. What's the call?

It is a violation. See Case book play 7.6.3 Situation B (last year's book. I assume it's the same citation this year)

I think that may be wrong but I don't have my book. Can you type a quick summary of the case book play?

Please note that it is A2 who touched the ball, not B1. It would be perfectly legal for B1 to smack the ball.

Here's a synopsis of the case book play:

During an attempted throw-in, A1holds the ball through the plane and hands it to A2. Ruling: Violation

I know that in the offered situation, A2 touched the ball instead of being handed the ball. However, I think the same ruling applies.

It's not wrong. A thrower cannot HAND the ball to a teammate. It must be passed.

My bad, a friday assumption had me thinking the two players involved were NOT on the same team. If they are on the same team it is a violation. I'm sorry and tired.

No problem. I almost assumed the same thing when I first read the post. That's why I began my reply by highlighting who did the touching.

For future reference, let me tell you what I tell my wife:If you think I'm wrong, think again. ;)

I don't know why she puts up with me.

Get some rest, tomegun

I say the play is legal.
 

Guys,
BktBallRef and I had this debate last year and I know both of us still hold differing opinions.
We agree that handing the ball to a teammate is a violation, but I believe that there is no rule against a teammate merely touching or even grabbing the ball, if the thrower does not release it. I say that since no rule prohibits it; it is legal. Tony says it is a violation.
This was about a 5 page thread last year if I remember correctly, so use the google search and Tony and I can do something more constructive than rehash our positions.

Nevadaref, I have to agree with you. If the ball doesn't actually change hands, I've got to let it go. If, however, A2 causes A1 to lose control of the ball, I'm calling a violation for handing it off.

OK, it's a violation, but what do you call - what's your hand signal? Is it considered travelling, or simply OOB?

"Throw-in violation." No hand signal (other than the open hand straight up).

Re: I say the play is legal.
 

So, what you're saying is that if A2 touches the ball, but doesn't ever get control, it's not a violation?!? What are the chances? Why would he touch the ball if he wasn't taking it? A fake? I don't understand your point here.

It could happen for a variety of reasons. An offensive player running by and bumping the ball. A2 trying to grab it, but A1 actually knowing the rule. Or A1 trying to hand it to A2, but A2 refusing knowing the rule.
Not thinking I can call a violation unless the hand off is complete (to the point where the thrower no longer has the ball.)

:rolleyes:

Thank you. So you're not calling it if A2 tries to grab the ball, but A1 is pulling back? But you keep counting, right? And then if A2 lets go, no harm done? I see your point. I'd be interested in hearing the opposing view.