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Old Mon Oct 27, 2003, 10:09am
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Quote:
Originally posted by Nevadaref
Now I'm confused by Dan's post. Dan, can you please explain a little better why 1&1 is not shot if a foul occurs by the throwing team after they have touched the ball inbounds after a throw-in, but have not controlled it?
I think Lotto & Bob covered it.
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