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Old Tue Oct 31, 2000, 06:05am
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Join Date: Feb 2000
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Seems to me if you give an intentional foul, you have rewarded A1 immediately because the basket stands. B will get the possession in either case (PC or intentional), but must hit both free throws to get back where they were before the violation with the intentional. I can't see how you could ever give the intentional foul under these circumstances, because it helps A who committed the foul in the first place. No violation should ever give the advantage to the team that committed the violation.

Flagrant comes with the ejection. If it is bad enough to warrant a flagrant, I can see giving the flagrant foul, but both coaches will be going nuts over this one, A because you kicked his player out and B because you let the basket stand.

Sounds like someone ought to go to NF and suggest a rule clarification/change to state that an intentional or flagrant foul by the airborne shooter will result in basket being disallowed. I can't honestly believe that they would want this type of call to be made.
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