NBA Loose Ball Foul Question

[Mttat44]

Hi, I have a question about an unusual play that occurred at the end of tonights Pistons-Clippers game, and I was wondering if someone with more knowledge about the rules might be able to explain it better to me.

There were 25 seconds left in the 4th qtr, both teams were in the penalty, and Jamal Crawford of the Clippers was at the FT line for the 2nd of 2 FTAs. His teammate JJ Redick was positioned next to the Pistons' Andre Drummond for the rebound (should Crawford miss).

After Crawford released the 2nd FTA (and before the shot went in), Redick intentionally fouled Drummond while the ball was still in the air, in an attempt to circumvent the "no hack-a-shaq allowed under 2 minutes" rule.

Crawford's FT went in and the basket was counted, and Drummond was awarded 2 FTs at the other end as a result of what was called a loose ball foul on Redick and the Pistons being in the penalty.

There are a few things I am confused about here.

1. If the foul was called before it went in, then there wasn't a loose ball yet, so how can it be a loose ball foul?

And if it was called after it went in, shouldn't that be a dead ball foul instead?

2. Why did Crawford's FT count if his teammate committed a foul as he was shooting?

I often see plays where a FG is waved off because a teammate committed a foul off the ball as he was shooting. It's usually ruled an offensive foul, basket no good, and possession awarded to the defense (but no FTs awarded the other way).

However, in this case a foul was committed by the offense as a teammate was in the act of shooting a FT, and the FT counted, and the defense was awarded 2 FTs at the other end.

It feels like it should have been one or the other. Either the FT should count and no foul should be called because he made it, or the foul should be called but the FT shouldn't count because it was a violation on the offense in the act of shooting.

Can anyone explain this to me and tell me if this was called correctly or not?

You can watch the play here:

https://vine.co/v/imAv1ULVAWh

Thanks

[Jay R]

Originally Posted by Mttat44

Hi, I have a question about an unusual play that occurred at the end of tonights Pistons-Clippers game, and I was wondering if someone with more knowledge about the rules might be able to explain it better to me.

There were 25 seconds left in the 4th qtr, both teams were in the penalty, and Jamal Crawford of the Clippers was at the FT line for the 2nd of 2 FTAs. His teammate JJ Redick was positioned next to the Pistons' Andre Drummond for the rebound (should Crawford miss).

After Crawford released the 2nd FTA (and before the shot went in), Redick intentionally fouled Drummond while the ball was still in the air, in an attempt to circumvent the "no hack-a-shaq allowed under 2 minutes" rule.

Crawford's FT went in and the basket was counted, and Drummond was awarded 2 FTs at the other end as a result of what was called a loose ball foul on Redick and the Pistons being in the penalty.

There are a few things I am confused about here.

1. If the foul was called before it went in, then there wasn't a loose ball yet, so how can it be a loose ball foul?

And if it was called after it went in, shouldn't that be a dead ball foul instead?

2. Why did Crawford's FT count if his teammate committed a foul as he was shooting?

I often see plays where a FG is waved off because a teammate committed a foul off the ball as he was shooting. It's usually ruled an offensive foul, basket no good, and possession awarded to the defense (but no FTs awarded the other way).

However, in this case a foul was committed by the offense as a teammate was in the act of shooting a FT, and the FT counted, and the defense was awarded 2 FTs at the other end.

It feels like it should have been one or the other. Either the FT should count and no foul should be called because he made it, or the foul should be called but the FT shouldn't count because it was a violation on the offense in the act of shooting.

Can anyone explain this to me and tell me if this was called correctly or not?

You can watch the play here:

https://vine.co/v/imAv1ULVAWh

Thanks

It is a loose ball as team control ends on the release of the shot.

The free throw counts since the foul was committed after the release.