Another backcourt question
 

Team A Throw in at the division line. A1 tips ball in her front court, ball goes to backcourt where she gathers. I whistled a bc violation. Now, second guessing myself. I know she can catch in bc but in my head, first touch (the tip) in fc and ball into bc was a bc violation. Help me out, my books are in the car. Does the tipped ball establish control? I'm beginning to think I missed it. Thanks


I wish I had a cool signature

No.

No, that's not a violation. Holding or dribbling the ball inbounds established team/player control for the purposes of BC violations.

CRAP!! I knew I was wrong. Good thing it was a 50-0 ballgame and it didn't make a diff in score. I won't mess that one up again (hopefully). Thanks fellas


I wish I had a cool signature

There was a really interesting conversation here on that recently. Can't believe you didn't see it.

Sent from my SPH-L900 using Tapatalk

I'll look for it. It was late last night when I got home and the situation was bugging me so I posted. But I'm GI Joe now, knowing is half the battle.


I wish I had a cool signature

From The Most Misunderstood Basketball Rules List ...
 

I guess that it deserves to be on the list:

I was told once. Would you grant a timeout to that team? If so, then they controlled it in the front court.

This doesn't make any sense. Player control is required to grant a timeout.

I am referring to what constitutes front court status with regard to a possible backcourt violation. If the player has possession to the point where you would grant a timeout, then you have front court status. If the player bats it to the backcourt, you would not grant a timeout in this situation, no backcourt violation.

Whoa! Does batting a ball mean there was player control? Not for calling a timeout, but for calling a BC violation?

EDIT: As far as I can see in the rule book, batting a ball does not equal player control, so batting the ball into the BC in this situation is not a violation. I'd like to hear it from others, though.

Of course not -- and that's pfan's point. There was never a time when you would have granted a TO, so there was never PC in the front court, so there's no BC violation.

I was watching football at the time, so I didn't consult the rule book for a while... hence the edit.

I just wondered if the exemption saying the ball could go into the BC due to a tipped ball, meant that the player that tipped the ball had no sort of control of it. A player "batting" a ball leads me to believe that he directed the ball into the backcourt on purpose.

Like on a previously mentioned play, where the difference between a try or tap for goal before the expiration of time, and a tipped ball before the expiration of of time, on a made basket.

Kind of playing devil's advocate.

Batman ...
 

I believe that a try, and a tap, are treated the same for the purposes of scoring points, fouls in the act, etc. (although it hasn't always been that way).

Batting the ball is usually construed to mean no player control.

Apples and oranges.