Suicide sqeeze gone bad

[Brblueump44]

Never had this happen like Im about to explain.

Less than 2 outs, runners on 1st and 3d. Runner on 3d breaks for home early, pitcher (from the set position) steps off of mound with pivot foot. Pitcher then steps towards home plate attempting a throw to the catcher to put out the runner. The ball arrives at home plate, the batter deliberately bunts the ball as if its a pitch.

What do you have? I call the runner out, putting the batter back in the box.

[bob jenkins]

BI -- good call.

I know it's in the FED case book, might also be in NCAA and OBR interps specifically. Even if it's not, it's the right call.

[Manny A]

Originally Posted by Brblueump44

Runner on 3d breaks for home early, pitcher (from the set position) steps off of mound with pivot foot.

To be clear, the pitcher must disengage the rubber by stepping back with his pivot foot. I'm sure that's what you meant to say...

[MD Longhorn]

This is the example of the trivia question... how can you complete an inning on just 1 pitch?

Answer: first pitch hit for a triple.
Batter in the box, R1 steals, pitcher steps off and fires home, batter hits the ball.

Int on the batter, Runner back to third. Repeat twice. 3 outs, 1 pitch.

[MD Longhorn]

PS - is this trivia question wrong - i see you saying the runner is out, not the batter. Don't have the books here.

[Brblueump44]

And yes the pitcher stepped back behind the mound to disengage.

Im over-thinking this Im sure but with less than 2 outs, can you get a double play calling the runner and the batter out?

Lets say the ball thrown to the plate was going to be caught by the catcher and the runner easily tagged out, until the batter interfered.

Can you assume the runner was going to be tagged out with a good throw (which it was or it couldn't have been bunted) AND get the batter out because he's the one who interfered?

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by Brblueump44

Im over-thinking this Im sure but with less than 2 outs, can you get a double play calling the runner and the batter out?

You can, but only if you have a coach who doesn't know the rules.

(it's only one out)

[Rich]

Originally Posted by MD Longhorn

PS - is this trivia question wrong - i see you saying the runner is out, not the batter. Don't have the books here.

If a batter interferes with a play at the plate, R3 is out with less than two outs and the batter is out with 2 outs.

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by Rich

If a batter interferes with a play at the plate, R3 is out with less than two outs and the batter is out with 2 outs.

I'm pretty sure I knew that. This "trivia question" precedes my umpiring. Striking to me that while I've told it a hundred times AFTER beginning umpiring, it didn't occur to me that it's been wrong all along. That's a bit embarrassing.

[johnnyg08]

Originally Posted by Brblueump44

Never had this happen like Im about to explain.

Less than 2 outs, runners on 1st and 3d. Runner on 3d breaks for home early, pitcher (from the set position) steps off of mound with pivot foot. Pitcher then steps towards home plate attempting a throw to the catcher to put out the runner. The ball arrives at home plate, the batter deliberately bunts the ball as if its a pitch.

What do you have? I call the runner out, putting the batter back in the box.

Could you ever have a balk on this for simulating the pitching motion while not on the rubber or is it always interference?

[john5396]

Originally Posted by johnnyg08

Could you ever have a balk on this for simulating the pitching motion while not on the rubber or is it always interference?

No, simulating a pitching motion would be starting off the rubber, then beginning a normal windup, stopping and then attempting a pickoff.

The OP indicated the pitcher clearly leagaly disengaged the rubber stepping backwards with his pivot foot, then started to make the play on R3.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by johnnyg08

Could you ever have a balk on this for simulating the pitching motion while not on the rubber or is it always interference?

It's possible -- if the pitcher went through the motions of stepping off (legal) then taking the rocker step sideways, then replanting the pivot foot, then lifting the free leg to the balance point, then striding to the plate ...

By this time, R3 will have already scored.

If the pitcher sees R3 going and steps off, 99% of the time F1 will just make a "normal" throw to home. And, since the purpose of the balk rule is to protect the runners, and the runner is already headed for home, it needs to be very obvious that it's a balk -- all the benefit of the doubt goes to the pitcher, here.

[Brblueump44]

During the original play the pitcher disengaged backwards, then took a crow hop to a couple of feet in front of the pitchers plate and threw the ball home.

It was obvious that the pitcher wasn't trying to simulate a pitch of any sort.

[Manny A]

Originally Posted by johnnyg08

Could you ever have a balk on this for simulating the pitching motion while not on the rubber or is it always interference?

The only time I've ever called a balk on a pitcher simulating a pitch while not on the rubber was when he assumed a windup position with a runner on first base, stepped off with his pivot foot behind the rubber, but raising his hands up as if starting a windup while stepping off. The runner was fooled into thinking the pitcher was delivering a pitch from the windup, and was quite surprised when he saw the pitcher turn to throw to second. The pitcher was just as surprised when I called the balk before he could complete the throw.

In this scenario, it would make no sense for the pitcher to try and do something similar.