Suicide sqeeze gone bad
 

Never had this happen like Im about to explain.

Less than 2 outs, runners on 1st and 3d. Runner on 3d breaks for home early, pitcher (from the set position) steps off of mound with pivot foot. Pitcher then steps towards home plate attempting a throw to the catcher to put out the runner. The ball arrives at home plate, the batter deliberately bunts the ball as if its a pitch.

What do you have? I call the runner out, putting the batter back in the box.

BI -- good call.

I know it's in the FED case book, might also be in NCAA and OBR interps specifically. Even if it's not, it's the right call.

To be clear, the pitcher must disengage the rubber by stepping back with his pivot foot. I'm sure that's what you meant to say... :)

This is the example of the trivia question... how can you complete an inning on just 1 pitch?

Answer: first pitch hit for a triple.
Batter in the box, R1 steals, pitcher steps off and fires home, batter hits the ball.

Int on the batter, Runner back to third. Repeat twice. 3 outs, 1 pitch.

PS - is this trivia question wrong - i see you saying the runner is out, not the batter. Don't have the books here.

And yes the pitcher stepped back behind the mound to disengage.

Im over-thinking this Im sure but with less than 2 outs, can you get a double play calling the runner and the batter out?

Lets say the ball thrown to the plate was going to be caught by the catcher and the runner easily tagged out, until the batter interfered.

Can you assume the runner was going to be tagged out with a good throw (which it was or it couldn't have been bunted) AND get the batter out because he's the one who interfered?

If a batter interferes with a play at the plate, R3 is out with less than two outs and the batter is out with 2 outs.

You can, but only if you have a coach who doesn't know the rules. ;)

(it's only one out)

Good one!

I'm pretty sure I knew that. This "trivia question" precedes my umpiring. Striking to me that while I've told it a hundred times AFTER beginning umpiring, it didn't occur to me that it's been wrong all along. That's a bit embarrassing. :)

Another trivia.

How can defense get three outs on a single batted ball without touching the ball?

FED case 8.4.2G is one way.

there are multiple ways.

This was the one I had in mind. Tease us if you know others..

1st and 2nd, 0 outs, batter hits infield fly for out #1. Runner from 1st passes runner from second for out #2. Runner from 2nd hit by ball for out #3.

Bases loaded. Ball hit over the fence. R2 passes R3. R1 passes R2. BR passes R1.

All runners run in reverse "to make a travesty of the game"

While the pitcher is in a position ready to pitch, B1 switches batter's boxes while simultaneously R3 and R2 attempt to retreat to second and first (after having been warned) -- 7.01

Any combination of the above type outs.

(FED has more, because you can add dead ball appeals and MC items to the list)