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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Sun Mar 24, 2013, 07:49am
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Groundball Deflects Off Pitcher/Hits Runner

Groundball hit up the middle. Deflects off of F1. Goes towards R1 who is heading to 2nd base and it hits R1.

I was told he is automatically out since F1 is not considered an infielder. Isn't that only true for non-deflected balls? Does that goes away when F1 is the defender who deflects it?


If my understanding is correct, what are we looking for to determine what to do when the ball hits R1? I've read some different interps/debates online. It seems to center around what the next defender is doing when the ball hits R1.

Thanks
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  #2 (permalink)  
Old Sun Mar 24, 2013, 08:46am
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If the ball is deflected, R1 is protected from interfering with the BALL (ulesss it's intentional, of course). When it happens, give the "that's nothing" signal and cal.

Note that R1 is NOT protected from interfering with another defensive PLAYER who has a play.

See 7.09 (k) and (j) and note the differences.

Also see 5.09(f) (I think -- that's from memory, and added later)

Last edited by bob jenkins; Sun Mar 24, 2013 at 11:57am.
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  #3 (permalink)  
Old Sun Mar 24, 2013, 08:50am
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The ball is live and play continues. Doesn't matter who deflected it, even the pitcher.
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Old Mon Mar 25, 2013, 08:08am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Spence View Post
I was told he is automatically out since F1 is not considered an infielder.
Someone told you wrong. F1 is always considered an infielder after he's delivered the pitch (or stepped off the rubber with the ball).

He's just treated differently than other infielders when it comes to deflecting a batted ball, as Bob mentioned, or it comes to umpire interference.
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Old Mon Mar 25, 2013, 10:18am
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Originally Posted by Manny A View Post
Someone told you wrong. F1 is always considered an infielder after he's delivered the pitch (or stepped off the rubber with the ball).

He's just treated differently than other infielders when it comes to deflecting a batted ball, as Bob mentioned, or it comes to umpire interference.
I think what you meant was that when a batted ball goes through or by the pitcher it does NOT exempt a runner from being out when hit.
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  #6 (permalink)  
Old Mon Jun 24, 2013, 07:53am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins View Post
If the ball is deflected, R1 is protected from interfering with the BALL (ulesss it's intentional, of course). When it happens, give the "that's nothing" signal and cal.

Note that R1 is NOT protected from interfering with another defensive PLAYER who has a play.

See 7.09 (k) and (j) and note the differences.

Also see 5.09(f) (I think -- that's from memory, and added later)
Getting back to this after reading J and K.

K seems to say he's not out on a deflected ball that hits him UNLESS there is another player who has a play. Am I reading that correctly?
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Old Mon Jun 24, 2013, 08:03am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Spence View Post
Getting back to this after reading J and K.

K seems to say he's not out on a deflected ball that hits him UNLESS there is another player who has a play. Am I reading that correctly?
No. The "another player who has a play" applies only to a ball that has gone through or by the first fielder.
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Old Mon Jun 24, 2013, 08:22am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins View Post
No. The "another player who has a play" applies only to a ball that has gone through or by the first fielder.
So when you said earlier "Note that R1 is NOT protected from interfering with another defensive PLAYER who has a play" does that mean not protected from actually making contact with the defender?

Lastly, other than intentionally kicking a ball is there any scenario where a runner is out for being hit by the batted ball AFTER it is deflected off of any other defender?
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Old Mon Jun 24, 2013, 09:08am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Spence View Post
So when you said earlier "Note that R1 is NOT protected from interfering with another defensive PLAYER who has a play" does that mean not protected from actually making contact with the defender?
Being touched by the ball is NOT "interfering with the fielder." The runner could be guilty of interfering with the fielder by yelling at him (under some codes), stopping and blocking his vision, making contact -- any of the ways he could be guilty if the ball wasn't deflected.

Quote:
Lastly, other than intentionally kicking a ball is there any scenario where a runner is out for being hit by the batted ball AFTER it is deflected off of any other defender?
Not that I can think of.
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  #10 (permalink)  
Old Mon Jun 24, 2013, 09:46am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins View Post
Being touched by the ball is NOT "interfering with the fielder." The runner could be guilty of interfering with the fielder by yelling at him (under some codes), stopping and blocking his vision, making contact -- any of the ways he could be guilty if the ball wasn't deflected.



Not that I can think of.
Thanks, Bob.
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  #11 (permalink)  
Old Mon Jun 24, 2013, 12:56pm
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Common sense tells us that we shouldn't hold a runner liable merely for being hit by a deflected ball.
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