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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Sat Sep 22, 2012, 11:39pm
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You have to throw to 1B, not F3. If F3 is in the flight path he can catch it before it gets to 1B and that's OK. Ventura thought that part up when he played for the Mets.

But if F3 is back or in - that's not OK.

There is some leeway in that F3 has to be close enough to make a play on a runner going bask to the base. That pretty much means within reach. Having to lunge or make an exagerated swipe that even then misses pretty much says there wasn't a reasonable chance for a play.
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Old Sat Sep 22, 2012, 11:58pm
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Here's the video
Baseball Video Highlights & Clips | CWS@LAA: Ventura gets ejected in the fourth inning - Video | MLB.com: Multimedia
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Old Sun Sep 23, 2012, 10:09am
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Not a very good call UNLESS he balked the step. Heck, if he was balking the throw to the first baseman being off the bag it was downright lousy call in light of the fact that the video replay would seem to indicate the first baseman in fact tagged the runner out..

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Old Sun Sep 23, 2012, 10:38am
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Is it b/c F3 was not ready for the play? If he was already moving toward 1B when this happened, would it have been OK? Or, would he still have called the balk?

I agree he was not in position to make a play on the runner in the beginning simply b/c he wasn't ready. But, by the end of the throw, he was in my judgment. Definitely, a rare balk to be called.
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Old Sun Sep 23, 2012, 12:46pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by JJ View Post
Heck, if he was balking the throw to the first baseman being off the bag it was downright lousy call in light of the fact that the video replay would seem to indicate the first baseman in fact tagged the runner out..
The fact that F3 eventually tagged R1 is immaterial. Heck, F3 could be standing halfway towards home set up for the bunt. If F1 throws the ball to F3, and then F3 runs back to first base and eventually tags R1 out, that's still a balk.

From the MLBUM: "The pitcher shall be charged with a balk if, while in contact with the rubber, he throws to the first baseman who is either in front of or behind first base and obviously not making an attempt at retiring the runner at first base. However, there is no violation if the pitcher throws the ball directly to first base in this situation."

I thought it was a clear balk. F3 caught the throw, and then had to take two or three steps before he was close enough to swipe a tag at R1.
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Old Sun Sep 23, 2012, 01:14pm
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Can't really see how much space there was between F3 and the runner, but it looked like a legitimate tag attempt to me. Also, the direction of the throw was very close to the base. I don't have a balk here.
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Old Sun Sep 23, 2012, 02:55pm
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"From the MLBUM: "The pitcher shall be charged with a balk if, while in contact with the rubber, he throws to the first baseman who is either in front of or behind first base and obviously not making an attempt at retiring the runner at first base. However, there is no violation if the pitcher throws the ball directly to first base in this situation."

What part of this statement is not clear here.

Did he throw to the bag? NO

Was F3 obiviously trying to trying to retire the runner prior to receiving the ball? No

Text book call of rule interpretation. F3's location relative to the runner and the fact that he tagged him has no bearing on the determination of whether it was a balk or not.

It would have been a balk in NFHS and NCAA ball also.
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Old Sun Sep 23, 2012, 06:01pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by jicecone View Post
"From the MLBUM: "The pitcher shall be charged with a balk if, while in contact with the rubber, he throws to the first baseman who is either in front of or behind first base and obviously not making an attempt at retiring the runner at first base. However, there is no violation if the pitcher throws the ball directly to first base in this situation."

What part of this statement is not clear here.

Did he throw to the bag? NO
Does he have to hit a 15" strike zone or do you give him a little leeway?

Quote:
Was F3 obiviously trying to trying to retire the runner prior to receiving the ball? No
How can a fielder retire a runner without the ball?
Quote:
F3's location relative to the runner and the fact that he tagged him has no bearing on the determination of whether it was a balk or not.
It has every bearing on whether F3 was making a legitimate tag attempt on the runner. Therefore, it has every bearing on whether or not F1 balked
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Old Sun Sep 23, 2012, 06:31pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by jicecone View Post
"From the MLBUM: "The pitcher shall be charged with a balk if, while in contact with the rubber, he throws to the first baseman who is either in front of or behind first base and obviously not making an attempt at retiring the runner at first base. However, there is no violation if the pitcher throws the ball directly to first base in this situation."

What part of this statement is not clear here.

Did he throw to the bag? NO

Was F3 obiviously trying to trying to retire the runner prior to receiving the ball? No

Text book call of rule interpretation. F3's location relative to the runner and the fact that he tagged him has no bearing on the determination of whether it was a balk or not.

It would have been a balk in NFHS and NCAA ball also.
NCAA A.R. -9.3.c.1 If the pitcher throws to the first baseman who is playing off the base, a balk shall not be called if the fielder moves toward first base in an attempt to retire the runner.

FED give little guidance but you are wrong about NCAA.
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Old Mon Sep 24, 2012, 08:47am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by JJ View Post
Not a very good call UNLESS he balked the step. Heck, if he was balking the throw to the first baseman being off the bag it was downright lousy call in light of the fact that the video replay would seem to indicate the first baseman in fact tagged the runner out..

JJ
Freeze Frame at 1:52 - runner is OUT.
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