In a 2 man system, the only time the field umpire ever has the primary fair/foul call is when he is at "A" position and a ball is hit or passes between first base and the right field foul pole. Everything else basically belongs to HP.

I can not remember the last field I worked on that did not have lines down the lines, some may have not been refreshed lately, but there was a line to see.

Just delete this post.

I know what you are trying to say, but a new umpire will read it entirely the opposite of what should be.

If I'm reading this right, that contradicts what I learned the other night, and what most people here are saying. The ball in the original post never passed between 1B and the RF foul pole. It hit foul halfway between home and first, and remained foul as it passed first base. But it was the BU's call.

If the ball does not come to rest or is not touched in can not be foul until it touches or passes first base, therefore the fair/foul belongs to U1 in A position. So a bounding ball that goes beyond first base can not first go foul before the base.

If it made it to or past 1st base fair or foul (i.e. travelled at least 90 feet from home plate down right field line) and you had an umpire at "A" position, it WAS his call. If it did not make it to 1st base, it was HP's call.

Be careful, not necessarily true.

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PU has fair foul up to the base. Don't over think it.

+1

It is exactly true. That ball is never a foul ball. It is in foul territory, but it is not a foul ball.

Ok, under the heading of "If you think there are no stupid questions, just wait until a coach asks one!" I'll take that one squarely on the chin! Of course it makes sense that such calls would belong to the PU, but I sometimes find what makes sense and what actually is in terms of rules/mechanics have a remarkable amount of distance between them, hence the post.

Oh, and I've offered to make calls for the crews working my games in the past and strangely enough they're not too receptive! Not sure why as they'd have to do less work and still get paid. Maybe I'll just keep trying... ;)

Fair enough. :)

I think my problem is that I UNDER-thought it my first year as an umpire, and assumed that "up to the base" meant that if the ball hit foul before 1B it would be the PU's call when the ball eventually passed the base.

And since nobody corrected me until the other night, I'm guessing a lot of other umpires are thinking the same way.

That makes it sound like PU has the base. He does not. I prefer Evans' "base and beyond: base umpire"