The Official Forum - Obstruction Protection

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Good info. Let me ask one more related question.

R1. BR hits a gapper. R1 is obstructed by SS and returns to 2nd base. BR would have had an easy double but sees R1 return so he tries to get back to 1B but is tagged out.

Do you award him 2nd base?

Quote:

Originally Posted by mbyron (Post 844320)

Agree. When R1 acquires 3B, the obstruction has been nullified, the mandatory minimum 1-base award has been satisfied, and we're done with the OBS.

If that runner then (idiotically) chooses to return to 2B during live-ball action and is subsequently tagged out, that out stands. The runner doesn't get 3B, come what may. Had he been tagged out immediately after rounding 3B, that out would have stood, too, and for the same reason: the awarded base has been acquired.

Correct. As long as this is not a case of OBR type "A" (which is immediate dead ball) obstruction (which it isn't in this case) advancing to next base nullifies obstruction unless you think the runner would have advanced to home absent the obstruction (not the case here due to lead runner retreating).

Quote:

Originally Posted by Caesar's Ghost (Post 844309)

RIF.

FED 8-3-2, 4th sentence "If any preceding runner is forced to advance by the awarding of a base or bases to an obstructed runner, the umpire shall award this preceding runner the necessary base or bases."

Other codes have similar language.

Now, in the revised FED play where obstructed R1 reaches third, and then retreats to second, I'd let the play stand.

If you had a R2 & R1, and R1 was obstructed by F3 going back to the bag, yeah advance all runners due to the obstruction....That's as good an example as any. When both runners are running in "reverse", it kind of hard to advance runners.

Does it give a case play to any effect?

I don't have books anymore.

Quote:

Originally Posted by Spence (Post 844339)

Yes.

The FED penalty explicitly spells this out:
"When a runner is obstructed (2-22) while advancing or returning to
a base, the umpire shall award the obstructed runner and each other runner
affected by the obstruction the bases they would have reached, in his opinion,
had there been no obstruction." (8-3-2)

BTW, the next sentence applies to your original case:
"If the runner achieves the base he was attempting to acquire, then the obstruction is ignored."

Quote:

Originally Posted by mbyron (Post 844372)

Are you sure you read his post correctly?

Good info. Let me ask one more related question.

R1. BR hits a gapper. R1 is obstructed by SS and returns to 2nd base. BR would have had an easy double but sees R1 return so he tries to get back to 1B but is tagged out.

Do you award him 2nd base?

BR was not obstructed, R1 who was obstructed was returning to 2nd and BR was thrown out.

Never-mind, I c now.

I always thought it was runners in advance of the obstructed runner who would be effected, never looked at it from this aspect though. So even a following runner would be effected by the obstruction. Good to know MB, thanks! I obviously never had it happen or I would know better.

Quote:

Originally Posted by thumpferee (Post 844392)

Your scenario applies to a preceding runner, not a trailing runner. R1 is on his own. He wasn't obstructed with. Remember it's a delayed dead ball. Playing action is still happening.