Interference?
 

OBR/NCAA/FED
Runner on first, possible bunt situation so the first baseman is playing in. Batter hits a ground ball that is deflected by the first baseman and then hits the runner from first who's heading for second...BUT...the second baseman is in a postion to field the ball and make a play on the batter-runner.

Interference?

JJ

I'm going with no in all three codes. The ball has already been touched by a fielder. If the ball only passed the fielder untouched, the F4 is entitled to make a play without interference. I don't believe the runner can be held responsible for a booted deflection by F3.

Different for OBR and FED.

OBR: No INT. The rule protects the first fielder, not just any fielder in a position to field the ball. It's INT if a batted ball touches a runner "before the ball has touched or passed an infielder" 7.08f. That's not the case here, play on.

FED: INT. It's INT if the runner "is contacted by a fair batted ball before it touches an infielder, or after it passes any infielder, except the pitcher, and the umpire is convinced that another infielder has a play" 8-4-2k. So if you judge that F4 has a play, the correct ruling is INT.

Don't know NCAA, sorry.

Nope. The relevant part of the rule is the part you didn't bold. Once the ball touches a fielder, no interference. 8.4.2i.

I know this is first baseman, but I thought I remember reading if it hits F1 and ricochets, there are guidelines and it might or might not be interference in OBR.

I'll have to look it up and see. Don't know if the same applies to F3

Thanks
David

Have interference here.
 

Here is a MLB situation
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NCAA 8.2.g

all infielders, other than the pitcher

Legitimate play?
 

Rule interference, NCAA 8.5.d.

MLB 5.09f. Ball is live and in play. MLB 7.09k. Rule interference.

MLBUM 6.4 makes it clear that a deflected ball that hits a runner is not interference, regardless of if a play was possible. Only exception is for intent.

Nope. A.R. 2 refers to interference with a fielder, not the ball.

Pretty sure you have the wrong rule reference. I could be wrong, but I think that rule is for the ball passing a fielder and hitting a runner.

Under NCAA, even if the pitcher deflects it and it hits a runner, it is alive and you play it.

The NCAA had this question on the test this year and they screwed it up. I answered it correctly and they said it was wrong. We went over it extensively on one of the other forums earlier this spring.

This play is not like the play in the OP at the top. This play has to do with INT by R1 on F4, not a deflected ball hitting the runner.

String theory revisited?
 

Yes the ball is live and in play after being deflected into the runner, MLB 5.09f. If another fielder has a legitimate play, runner is out for interference, MLB 7.09k.

Again, no interference for deflecting the ball, agreed? The umpire shall not declare the runner out for being touched by a deflected batted ball. However, interference for preventing another fielder from making a play on BR.

No. Read above.

That is not what 7.09(k) says at all. If the ball is deflected into a runner, the umpire SHALL NOT declare the runner out. If the ball passes BY or THROUGH (i.e., not deflected) and touches the runner, and the umpire is convinced that another fielder has a play on the ball, then it's INT. If a deflected ball is deliberately AND intentionally kicked, only then is it INT.

5.09 The ball becomes dead and runners advance one base, or return to their bases, without liability to be put out, when—

(f) A fair ball touches a runner or an umpire on fair territory before it touches an infielder including the pitcher, or touches an umpire before it has passed an infielder other than the pitcher; runners advance, if forced. If a fair ball goes through, or by, an infielder, no other infielder has a chance to make a play on the ball and the ball touches a runner immediately behind the infielder that the ball went through, or by, the ball is in play and the umpire shall not declare the runner out. If a fair ball touches a runner after being deflected by an infielder, the ball is in play and the umpire shall not declare the runner out;

Rule 5.09(f) Comment: If a fair ball touches an umpire working in the infield after it has bounded past, or over, the pitcher, it is a dead ball. If a batted ball is deflected by a fielder in fair territory and hits a runner or an umpire while still in flight and then caught by an infielder it shall not be a catch, but the ball shall remain in play.

__________________________________________________ _____________

7.09 It is interference by a batter or a runner when—

(k) A fair ball touches him on fair territory before touching a fielder. If a fair ball goes through, or by, an infielder, and touches a runner immediately back of him, or touches the runner after having been deflected by a fielder, the umpire shall not declare the runner out for being touched by a batted ball. In making such decision the umpire must be convinced that the ball passed through, or by, the fielder, and that no other infielder had the chance to make a play on the ball. If, in the judgment of the umpire, the runner deliberately and intentionally kicks such a batted ball on which the infielder has missed a play, then the runner shall be called out for interference.

PENALTY FOR INTERFERENCE: The runner is out and the ball is dead.

8.2.g states..If a fair ball touches a base runner in fair territory before the ball has touched or passed all infielders, other than the pitcher, the ball is dead, the runner is out and the batter-runner is awarded first base

The way I am interpreting this is, once the ball touches F3 as in the OP, the ball is live and in play. If the ball had passed F3 and F2 was able to make a play, INT. And notice, other than the pitcher. So if the batted ball is touched by the pitcher and hits the runner, INT IF it has not passed all fielders and they could make a play.

So, for the OP,

MLB-NO
NCAA-NO
NFHS-YES(go figure)

Incorrect. The clause "other than the pitcher" modifies "passed all infielders." It has nothing to do with touching.

Incorrect. This is not INT in FED.

1. Batted ball touches a fielder (including the pitcher), then touches a runner - INT only if intentional (another fielder having or not having a play is irrelevant).

2. Batted ball passes by or through a fielder (other than the pitcher) untouched then touches runner - INT only if intentional and/or another fielder has a play.

In OBR, the ball must pass directly by or through the fielder for the runner to be potentially immune from INT. FED and NCAA are more lenient (the ball passing the fielder is good enough). Other than that, all codes agree.

Step and a reach?
 

Also a runner must attempt to avoid a fielder attempting to make a play on a batted ball, even if the ball was deflected by another fielder.

It is alive and in play despite the fact that another infielder may be in position to field the ball.

This is not the case if a fielder is making a play on the ball! The runner must avoid the fielder. If the runner interferes with the fielder making a play, the runner is declared out.

Otherwise, the ball is still live and in play.

*Edited to say: I got it wrong. You had it right S.A. My apologies.*

That actually is correct for OBR, per MLBUM 6.4.

Yes, you are right. Thank you. He does have to avoid the fielder in either case.

You are interpreting it wrong. Once the ball touches a fielder, it can hit a runner and you play it.

You need to separate this rule from the rule about the ball passing a fielder then hitting a runner. They are different.

This is right on.

Thanks for piling on.:)

I was wondering where you were going with that.

I drove it right into the ditch.

NFHS Response
 

I submitted the play to the NFHS and here's their "official" response -

"I ran your situation by a few committee members and got a consensus that since it was touched by the infielder, it is nothing, ball stays in play and what happens is what happens. Had the ball gotten by the first baseman, untouched, and then hit the base runner with the second baseman in position to make a play, we would then have interference."

Looks like the deflection was the key, so despite what the FED books say about another fielder having a chance to make a play, this situation is NOT considered interference by the runner.

JJ

Common sense tells me that we shouldn't hold a runner responsible for being hit by a deflected ball.

If he does something intentional after the deflection, that's another story.

That's one speedy catcher...

The books don't say anything of the sort with regards to a touched ball. The case play I cited above is nearly verbatim with the OP and states that it is not interference.

He said it's not INT. You said it's not INT. I'm not clear what you're disagreeing with.

His last sentence, claiming that the books say something about another fielder having a play.

I also think it's somewhat a waste of time to contact NFHS when this play is in the case book.

The last sentence had to do with an UNTOUCHED ball though.

You know I meant F4!

You really don't want to start nit-picking posts, do you?:D

No, it didn't. Read the whole post. He is talking only about touched balls. (snickers)<SNICKER>

If you're talking about JJ's post, it says untouched, and I didn't see an edit.

So we are talking about untouched balls here:)

No, we are not, Ray Charles. Look at where it says "Had the ball...untouched" and "the deflection is the key."

His comments are only about deflected balls.

My opologies!

Where is his post? Was it deleted? Who is Ray Charles:confused:

Ray Charles is God:

1. God is love.
2. Love is blind.
3. Ray Charles was blind.
Therefore, Ray Charles was God.

Q.E.D.

I'm ray Charles!:mad:

No... he said, "Had the ball gotten by the first baseman, untouched, and ..."

You yourself just said untouched.

Who is Ray Charles?

Exactly...HAD. The use of that word tells you that sentence is in contrast to what the rest of the post, which was balls that were touched.