Tie goes to the .... ?

[Warren Willson]

Originally posted by GarthB
Warren sez: Now by my understanding that was one of your non-existant perceived ties, and yet the rule book had a clinical way for the umpire to deal with that perfectly valid perception.


EXACTLY! By your understanding. Not by intent of the rule, tradition or anything else related to baseball.

I'll side with the historians and rule experts on this one, Mate: There is no intention of the rules to allow for ties.

I've got your back on others, but not this one.

WHOA! I AGREE with everything you state here.

I don't recall ever claiming that the "intention of the rules" was "to allow for ties". On the contrary, I believe the intention of the rules was clearly to eliminate the possibility of ties.

That was my point: If you as umpire perceive a tie between competing events then the rule will actually tell you how to resolve it! You don't need no cotton-pickin', bango-strummin', straw stick-suckin' "rule of thumb" to decide the question. JUST READ THE DANG RULE. *HUGE grin*

Cheers