Rich are you saying that in OBR if the hit ball touches the mound and lands within the diamond without being touched, it is a foul ball? That sure wouldn't make sense to me since any ball landing between the first and third base line is a fair ball.

Greg

[Edited by Gre144 on Jun 28th, 2003 at 10:29 PM]

Not guite
 

Think about the rule Greg.

If the ball ends up in fair territory after hitting the mound of course its fair!

Same with if the ball ends up foul, its foul.

Read the rules stated above, and think about it and it will make sense.

Dont' make this too hard.

Thanks
David

Dave according to Fed 2.5 if a ball touches an imaginary line between first and third and then rolls foul without touching a person, it is a fair ball.

In my situation the ball line drived into the pitching mound and then bounced back into foul territory. Would you call that fair or foul

Greg

its foul
 

I understand what you are looking at, but its foul.

As others have stated the line that you are talking about runs behind the mound.

Thanks
David