Batter's ball hits pitcher's mound and bounces back into foul territory without touching any player. Is this a fair or foul ball?

Thanks,

Greg

Did this happen?
 

This is one of the great trick questions that shows up from time to time.

I thought this will and never could happen,

last season it did after 25 years.

and i got it right!

I don't have the reference, but its a foul ball.

thanks
David

I have won enough cups of coffee on that one to float an aircraft carrier.

Bob

Yes it did happen.

I was told that it should be a fair ball because it passed an imaginary line between 1 and 3 base.

Greg

Get a copy of OBR and look up foul ball in rule 2.00. The situation is explicitly covered there.

"I was told that it should be a fair ball because it passed an imaginary line between 1 and 3 base."


That "imaginary" line is a mirage. The pitcher's plate is in FRONT of the line between 1B and 3B.

Bob

I had this argument the other night with a fellow fireman at the station. He says FAIR, I say FOUL. Could someone please cite the rule so I can prove to him that it is a foul ball and win this bet.

Thank,

Wesley

I did, did you miss it?

It's in rule 2.00 "Foul Ball" in the OBR book.

Where is the rule covered under FED.

Thanks,

Greg

Thanks Rick. I must have not read far enough.

2-5 (it doesn't meet any of these requirements) and 2016 (it does meet at least one of these).

One of the weird FED differences is that imaginary line connecting 1st base and 3rd base.

In a FED game, if a ball lands behind that line in the infield, the ball is fair regardless of what happens afterwards. In OBR, the ball must touch outside the diamond for it to be ruled fair without it being touched (or stopped).

The mound is in FRONT of that line, since the pitcher's plate is 60'6" from the plate. Home to second (see OBR 1.04) is 127 feet 3-3/8 inches. Therefore, since the infield is a square, that imaginary line would be half that distance, or 63 feet 7-11/16 inches from home plate.

Rich

So does that mean Rich that if the hit ball touches the pitcher's mound without being touched by a player and rolls into foul territory, it is a foul ball in Fed? (Where is this rule in the FED case book?)

Greg

Rich Fed 2.5b mentions an imaginary line between first and thirds base which if drawn would go through the front edge of the pitching mound. It doesn't say that the imaginary line is halfway between home and second as you suggest. With this is mind, I would say that if a ball hits the pitching mound in Fed it is a fair ball.

Thanks,

Greg

The line that connects 1B and 3B lies about 3 feet <i>behind</i> the rubber.

Rich are you saying that in OBR if the hit ball touches the mound and lands within the diamond without being touched, it is a foul ball? That sure wouldn't make sense to me since any ball landing between the first and third base line is a fair ball.

Greg

[Edited by Gre144 on Jun 28th, 2003 at 10:29 PM]

Not guite
 

Think about the rule Greg.

If the ball ends up in fair territory after hitting the mound of course its fair!

Same with if the ball ends up foul, its foul.

Read the rules stated above, and think about it and it will make sense.

Dont' make this too hard.

Thanks
David

Dave according to Fed 2.5 if a ball touches an imaginary line between first and third and then rolls foul without touching a person, it is a fair ball.

In my situation the ball line drived into the pitching mound and then bounced back into foul territory. Would you call that fair or foul

Greg

its foul
 

I understand what you are looking at, but its foul.

As others have stated the line that you are talking about runs behind the mound.

Thanks
David