Level 3 OBA exam answers

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by Mrumpiresir

According to OBR, in the case of offensive interference, don't runners return to the last base legally touched at the time of the interference? Shouldn't the runner remain at third?

The base still belonged to R3 so it wasn't legally touched by R2.

[soundedlikeastrike]

Originally Posted by Rich Ives

The base still belonged to R3 so it wasn't legally touched by R2.

R3's out, it's not his bag anymore.
Reserve that for when their both standing on a bag.
If the following runner got there before the INT I'd leave him.
Consider if he'd even rounded 3B, would you still send him back to 2nd?

[dash_riprock]

Originally Posted by soundedlikeastrike

R3's out, it's not his bag anymore.
Reserve that for when their both standing on a bag.
If the following runner got there before the INT I'd leave him.
Consider if he'd even rounded 3B, would you still send him back to 2nd?

Yes. At the time of the INT, R2 had not legally acquired 3rd base.

[webby56]

Originally Posted by soundedlikeastrike

R3's out, it's not his bag anymore.
Reserve that for when their both standing on a bag.
If the following runner got there before the INT I'd leave him.
Consider if he'd even rounded 3B, would you still send him back to 2nd?

Read 7.08 (b) notes !! The runner standing on third did not legally aquire 3rd, since he got there before the runner that "was" on 3rd before him had legally advanced to another base. The runner that moved from 2nd to 3rd did so as a result of the interference by R3 before R3 had advanced to home (so R3's last legally touched base was 3rd), thus R2 was not legally entitled to 3rd. The ball is dead and all runners return to their last LEGALLY touched base.
Hope this helps?