Is returning to first legal?

[email protected] · #1 (**permalink**) Sun Jun 01, 2003, 11:31pm

One out, man on first. Ground ball to first base, who fields and tags 1st base before BR reaches it. Runner advanced ALL THE WAY to second, but, thinking there were already two outs, steps off second and takes a few steps towards 1st, ( He was not off of 2nd towards 1st enough to have been considered to be abandoning his base), towards his dugout. F3 sees this and throws to second. F4 catches the ball and runs at runner, toward 1st base. Runner catches on to the situation, and backs away from F4, towards 1st base. He winds up in a pickle between 2nd and 1st, and is safe back at 1st. Is this possible?

cowbyfan1 · #2 (**permalink**) Mon Jun 02, 2003, 12:51am

No. I do not have my rule book right in front of me, but once the runner has "earned" the next base he cannot just "go back". So in your case, he earned 2nd thus giving up his right to first.

Bfair · #3 (**permalink**) Mon Jun 02, 2003, 01:53am

In this situation, I wouldn't call abandonment on a runner who reached 2B merely because he returned toward 1B. I'd wait until he crossed the foul line. The pitcher did not engage the rubber, so as long as the runner is returning due to legitimate error, he is not attempting to make a travesty of the game. He is still legitimately running the bases and is not yet precluded from returning by rule 7.01. He's merely made a legitimate mistake and can legally reclaim 1B as his base.

Just my opinion,

Freix

thumpferee · #4 (**permalink**) Mon Jun 02, 2003, 05:32am

Quote:

Originally posted by [email protected]
One out, man on first. Ground ball to first base, who fields and tags 1st base before BR reaches it. Runner advanced ALL THE WAY to second, but, thinking there were already two outs, steps off second and takes a few steps towards 1st, ( He was not off of 2nd towards 1st enough to have been considered to be abandoning his base), towards his dugout. F3 sees this and throws to second. F4 catches the ball and runs at runner, toward 1st base. Runner catches on to the situation, and backs away from F4, towards 1st base. He winds up in a pickle between 2nd and 1st, and is safe back at 1st. Is this possible?

Once 1st base is tagged and B1 is out at 1st, there is no force play on R1. That is why a fielder must then tag the runner going to 2nd.

So why wouldn't it be possible for R1 returning to 1st?

thumpferee · #5 (**permalink**) Mon Jun 02, 2003, 05:34am

Quote:

Originally posted by cowbyfan1
No. I do not have my rule book right in front of me, but once the runner has "earned" the next base he cannot just "go back". So in your case, he earned 2nd thus giving up his right to first.

I think you may be thinking of a dead ball situation!

tucktheump · #6 (**permalink**) Mon Jun 02, 2003, 09:06am

as long as the runner is not "making a travesty of the game", he can run the bases in reverse order providing he touches the bases in reverse order.

this is not a common play, but the runner can return to first if the base is not occupied.

cowbyfan1 · #7 (**permalink**) Tue Jun 03, 2003, 01:05am

True, I was thinking dead ball. If ball is live and he needed to he could.. My bad. I know better than that...